Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs) in Optometry and Ophthalmology
Well, if you are a recent graduate of optometry (and
or vision science), PCL ophthalmic science or ophthalmology; and if you are
thinking of upgrading your career, then you are at the right place. Please go
through each question and practice similar questions more. Hence this page is
dedicated to career-oriented optometrists, ophthalmic assistants and
ophthalmologists who want to refresh their knowledge in core theories of
ophthalmology and optometry.
Who will be benefited
by reading this MCQs in Optometry and Ophthalmology?
It will benefit those
who-
a)
are appearing in licensing examination
of pertinent council (health professional council, optometry council or medical council)
b)
are appearing in the entrance
examination for Master of Optometry
c)
are fighting for an optometry job,
ophthalmic assistant job or ophthalmology job and have to appear in a
competitive written examinations (for example: eye hospitals, Nepal Army, Nepal
police, Lok Sewa Ayog, etc)
d)
All types examinations in the field of
eye care that encompasses MCQs
e)
Viva voce examinations of Ophthalmic
Assistants, Optometrists and Ophthalmologists
My advice:
first go through the questions serially from question number one and try to
answer them by writing the correct answer (that you think) in a separate paper.
And after finishing, you can compare your answers with the ones given at the
end of this page. You have to go to the specific textbook to look for the
explanation so that you will be able to answer similar questions in the given
contexts.
 |
| These MCQs are prepared by Rabindra Adhikary |
1.
Excimer laser is used in
a)
LASIK
b)
LASEK
c)
PRK
d)
All
2.
IOL Master uses the principle of
a)
Ultrasound
b)
Coherence Interferometry
c)
Linear Polarization
d)
Fraunhofer Diffraction
3. Power of Prism mostly depends upon
a)
Media in which it is kept
b)
Angle
c)
Thickness
d)
All
4.
The correct one about Stenopic slit is
a)
Used to assess the site for optical PI
in corneal opacity
b)
Works on the principle of Prism
c)
The rays of light are limited on the
meridian perpendicular to the axis of slit
d)
All
5.
World Sight Day is celebrated on:
a)
2nd Thursday of October each
year
b)
2nd Thursday of October
alternate year
c)
2nd Wednesday of October each
year
d)
2nd Wednesday of October
alternate year
6.
Human Crystalline lens develops from
a)
Neuro-ectoderm
b)
Surface ectoderm
c)
Mesenchyme
d)
Mesoderm
7.
The latest version of disease
classification system developed by WHO is
a)
ICD-8
b)
ICD-9
c)
ICD-10
d)
ICD-11
8.
The longest part of optic nerve is
a)
Intra-ocular
b)
Intra-orbital
c)
Intra-cranial
d)
Intra-canalicular
9.
Which of the following is true about
cortical blindness except
a)
Pupillary Light Reflex is intact
b)
Funduscopy reveals normal finding
c)
VEP can be used as the accurate
diagnostic test
d)
Afferent pathway not affected
10. Onset
of presbyopia depends upon all except
a)
Refractive error
b)
Pupil size
c)
Ciliary tone
d)
AC Depth
11. The
co-efficient of correlation lies between
a)
0 to 1
b)
-1 to 0
c)
+1 to -1
d)
+0.5 to -0.5
12. In
axial myopia
a)
Posterior staphyloma is associated
b)
Rays
of light focused beyond retina
c)
No risk of progressive retinal
degeneration
d)
Yielding of the elastic membrane of the
sclera
13. ERG
b-wave amplitude is reduced in
a)
Oguchi’s Disease
b)
Punctata Albicans
c)
Diabetic
d)
Optic Atrophy
14. Gender
(male/female) is which entity?
a)
Nominal
b)
Ordinal
c)
Cardinal
d)
Interval
15. IOL
power is increased if
a)
Corneal curvature increases and axial
length is increases
b)
Corneal curvature increases and axial
length decreases
c)
Corneal curvature decreases and axial
length decreases
d)
Corneal curvature decreases and axial
length increases
16. Contrast
sensitivity peaks at
a)
2 cycles/degree
b)
3 cycles/degree
c)
3.5 cycles/degree
d)
4 cycles/degree
17. Which
of the following is a parametric test?
a)
Chi-square test
b)
The Kruskal Wallis test
c)
Wilcoxon Signed Rank test
d)
t-test
18. Prism
produces……………image
a)
Erect
b)
Laterally inverted
c)
Virtual
d)
Shifted towards its base
19. The
change in stimuli perception from scotopic vision condition to photopic vision
condition is best explained by
a)
Purkinje Shift
b)
Photochromatic interval
c)
Visual adaptation
d)
Biphasic threshold
20. A
case of Retinitis Pigmentosa might be best benefitted by
a)
Field expanding channel lenses
b)
Corning Photochromatic Filters
c)
Telemicroscope
d)
CCTV
21. Blue
end of visible light causes
a)
Photoophthalmia
b)
Maculopathy
c)
Corneal burns
d)
Xanthelasma
22. The
prism used in the slit lamp to make the inverted image erect is
a)
Internal doubling prism
b)
Porro Abbe prism
c)
Integrated Fresnel Prism
d)
Reflective polyhedral prism
23. Choose
the wrong about the range of wavelength
a)
UVC 220-280 nm
b)
UVB 280-315
c)
UVA 315-400 nm
d)
IR A 780-3000 nm
24. Public
health does not deal with………..care
a)
Promotive
b)
Rehabilitative
c)
Curative
d)
Preventive
25. One
is regarded as Basement’s membrane
a)
Bowman’s layer
b)
Stroma
c)
Descement’s membrane
d)
Retinal pigment epithelium
26. The
contact lens seems loose and rides high while blinking on slit lamp
examination. With the diameter constant, altering which of the following
parameters do we obtain an optimal fit?
a)
Lens thickness increase
b)
BOZR decrease
c)
Peripheral optic zone decrease
d)
Oxygen permeability increase
27. The
image formed by reflection of light
a)
Dioptric
b)
Catoptric
c)
Rectilinear
d)
Both b and c
28. Of
the four Purkinje-Sanson’s image, which
one is inverted?
a)
P1
b)
P2
c)
P3
d)
P4
29. In
orbital trauma the bone most likely to be damaged is
a)
Lateral Zygomatic
b)
Orbital floor of maxillary
c)
Nasal
d)
Ethmoid
30. Diplopia
is permitted in
a)
If retinal disparity is not within
Panum’s Fusional area
b)
ARC
c)
Eccentric fixation
d)
All
31. ……assist
a low vision patient
a)
Anomaloscope
b)
Typoscope
c)
Periscope
d)
Orthoscope
32. Lea
Grating chart is a………acuity
a)
Recognition
b)
Forced Preferential looking
c)
Resolution
d)
OKN
33. Full
form of RAAB is
a)
Rapid Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
b)
Re Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
c)
Random Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
d)
Revised Assessment of Avoidable
Blindness
34. False
about Hess Charting
a)
Performed at 135 cm
b)
Red-green goggles are better than
red-green glasses
c)
Follows Herring’s and Sherrington’s law
d)
25 test points
35. The
luminous efficiency of human eye is maximum at
a)
500nm
b)
550 nm
c)
650 nm
d)
700 nm
36. One
is incorrect about children’s vision test
a)
CSM is recorded for children 1 year or
above
b)
Cardiff acuity test consists of
vanishing optotypes
c)
At birth a child has 3/60 VA
d)
Teller Acuity is modified form of
preferential looking
37. Which
of the following is not included under occupational care of optometry
a)
Workplace survey
b)
Vision screening
c)
Steps in implementation of program
d)
Epidemiological survey
38. Father
of Modern optometry is
a)
Theodore Grosvenor
b)
Charles Prentice
c)
Irvin Borish
d)
Gunter K von Noorden
39. Spasmus
Nutans is not characterized by
a)
Jerky nystagmus
b)
Torticolis
c)
Fades away as child grows
d)
Thiamine and Iron deficiency
40. The
angle between the line of direction from fovea to the anomalously fixated point
in retina is
a)
Objective angle
b)
Subjective angle
c)
Angle of anomaly
d)
Angle kappa
41. In
JCC, the axis of Jackson cylinder is held ……to the axis of correcting cylinder
while refining the cylindrical axis
a)
45 degree
b)
90 degree
c)
135 degree
d)
Both a & c
42. A
patient complains that the reading materials appear distorted when looking
through a hand magnifier. Which of the following do you think is responsible
for this complaint?
a)
The patient maybe holding the reading
material farther than the focal length of the magnifying lens
b)
The magnifying lens might be held at an
incorrect angle to the reading material
c)
The magnifying lens maybe of poor
quality
d)
All
43. The
new born baby does not have………color perception
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
All
44. The
industrial safety standards advise which materials to be used?
a)
CR-39
b)
Ophthalmic Flint
c)
Polycarbonate
d)
PMMA
45. In
dendritic keratitis, …………ointment acyclovir is applied
a)
3%, 3 times
b)
5%, 5 times
c)
3%, 5 times
d)
5%, 3 times
46. Light
a)
Is a wave
b)
Is an energy
c)
Propagates transversely
d)
All
47. Which
of the following property of image is not possible when formed by convex lens?
a)
Real, inverted
b)
Real, upright
c)
Virtual, inverted
d)
Virtual, upright
48. Prevalence
of cataract in a city is based estimated by…….study
a)
Cohort
b)
Cross-sectional
c)
Longitudinal
d)
Case-control
49. For
a sportswear, prescription glass should pass
a)
ANSI z87.1
b)
0.25 ounce drop ball test
c)
ASTM F803
d)
All
50. Neutral
density filters allow
a)
Long wavelength
b)
Short wavelength
c)
Broad spectrum
d)
Narrow spectrum
51. In
PDR, there should be
a)
Cotton wool spot
b)
IRMA
c)
Rubeosis
d)
Neovascularization
52. In
24-2 program of Humphrey field analyzer, total points tested are
a)
54
b)
72
c)
76
d)
48
53. Unit
of Dk/t is
a)
Cm2 ml O2/sec.ml mmHg
b)
Cm ml O2 / sec. ml mmHg
c)
Cm ml O2 sec / ml mmHg
d)
Cm ml O2 mmHg / sec ml
54. Which
sampling is appropriate for a homogenous population?
a)
Systematic
b)
Simple random
c)
Purposive
d)
Stratified
55. Koeppe’s
nodule is found in
a)
Choroid
b)
Ciliary body
c)
Iris
d)
Eyelids
56. In
OCT the high reflectivity is obtained from……….layer
a)
Outer plexiform
b)
Inner Nuclear
c)
Nerve fiber layer
d)
Internal limiting membrane
57. Most
common stabilization technique for soft toric
a)
Double truncation with peripheral slab
off
b)
Prism ballasting with superior shifting of
optical center
c)
Single truncation with dynamic
stabilization
d)
Double slab off with periballast
58. Which
is not altitude based scanning of cornea?
a)
ORBSCAN
b)
Pantacam
c)
Oculyzer
d)
Videokeratographer
59. An
object is placed 45 cm ahead of a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm. Which
is correct?
a)
Image distance=11.24, M=4
b)
Image distance=-11.25, M=0.25
c)
Image distance=22.5, M=2
d)
Image distance=-22.5, M=0.5
60. Which
parameter of light remains constant when a light enters another medium from the
first of any?
a)
Wavelength
b)
Velocity
c)
Frequency
d)
Color
61. B
Scan means
a)
Frequency scan
b)
Brightness scan
c)
Axial scan
d)
Mode scan
62. The
second most common cause of blindness in the world
a)
Diabetic retinopathy
b)
Glaucoma
c)
Onchocerciasis
d)
Age related macular degenerations
63. Most
reliable method of Gonioscopy includes…..lens
a)
Koeppe
b)
Barkan
c)
Goldman
d)
4 mirror
64. The
add required for a 40 year old with working distance <30cm
a)
+0.75 D
b)
+1 D
c)
+1.25 D
d)
+1.5 D
65. Contrast
sensitivity is fully developed at
a)
3 months
b)
6 months
c)
9 months
d)
12 months
66. A
patient comes with the splashing of detergent in the eyes. After thorough wash,
you see punctuate keratopathy with NO epithelial defect. Which treatment
protocol would you like to follow?
a)
Topical antibiotic with analgesia
b)
Topical antibiotic, steroid with
analgesia
c)
Topical potassium citrate with analgesia
d)
Topical potassium ascorbate with
lubricants
67. Which
one does have hereditary correlation
a)
Green color defect
b)
Blue Defect
c)
Red defect
d)
All
68. 1M
letter subtends 5 degree angle at the nodal point of eye when the object of
regard is kept at
a)
40 cm
b)
1m
c)
5m
d)
25 cm
69. …………is
not a low vision aid
a)
Text scanner
b)
Plus plano cylinder
c)
Concave mirror
d)
Channel lenses
70. The
illuminance of the room while using computer should be
a)
50 lux
b)
100-200 lux
c)
300-500 lux
d)
500-700 lux
71. A
person wears +4 D spherical spectacles but his glasses are pantoscopically
tilted by 10 degrees. Which is false?
a)
The optical center should have been
shifted lower by 5 mm
b)
The tilt will develop a plus cylinder
whose axis will be at 180 degrees
c)
The effective spherical power will be
less than +4 D
d)
None
72. The
first field defect in POAG
a)
Isolated nasal scotima
b)
Bjerrum’s scotoma
c)
Arcuate Scotoma
d)
Ring Scotoma
73. The
action of superior oblique is best explained by
a)
Abduction, elevation, extorsion
b)
Adduction, elevation, intorsion
c)
Abduction, depression, intorsion
d)
Abduction, depression, extorsion
74. The
cycloplegic effect of tropicamide would last
a)
30-45 min
b)
45- 90 min
c)
2-4 hours
d)
6 hours
75. Disc
edema is observed in all except
a)
Papillitis
b)
CRVO
c)
BRVO
d)
Neovascular Glaucoma
76. Metamorphopsia
is demonstrated best in……char of Amsler
Grid
a)
Chart 2
b)
Chart 5
c)
Chart 6
d)
Both b and c
77. In
Amsler chart 1, each square will constitute ……degree of visual field
a)
0.5
b)
1
c)
2
d)
10
78. In
divergence excess type of exodeviation, one among all is false
a)
High AC/A ratio
b)
Normal near point of convergence
c)
Normal near point of accommodation
d)
Near exo= 25 prism, far exo= 10
79. What
percentage of cyclepentolate is recommended in the cycleplegic refraction of a
young child more than 3 years old?
a)
0.25%
b)
0.5%
c)
1%
d)
2%
80. A
53 year old male has been wearing add +1.75Ds. He has no distance error. He complains
of slight difficulty reading small prints. What changes would he have to make
if he wanted to see clearly with the same diopters?
a)
Use a progressives of same prescription
in a hard design
b)
Use the lenses to fit into separate
frame so that segment height is slightly elevated
c)
Move the glasses away from the corneal
apex thereby increasing the vertex distance
d)
Use the low powered hand magnifier when
needed
81. The
disadvantage of monovision fitting of contact lens in presbyopia instead of
bifocal contact lens is
a)
Loss of stereopsis
b)
Dizziness and headache until adaptation
c)
Relative loss of contrast
d)
Reduced field of view
82. All
are signs of anterior uveitis except
a)
Reduced VA
b)
Miosis
c)
Circum-ciliary injection
d)
Papillae
83. The
test of Psychophysical test does not include
a)
Visual Acuity
b)
Color Vision
c)
Contrast sensitivity
d)
VEP
84. Third
Nerve Palsy is best demonstrated by
a)
Ptosis, diplopia and esodeviation
b)
Ptosis, mydriasis and exodeviation
c)
Ptosis, miosis and exodeviation
d)
Diplopia, exodeviation and miosis
85. All
are used for binocular vision test except
a)
WFD test
b)
Anaglyph
c)
Maddox rod
d)
Duochrome test
86. Bilateral
superior oblique muscle palsy is elucidated by all except
a)
V pattern
b)
Bielshowsky head tilt test positive
c)
Spontaneous torsional diplopia
d)
Associated history of trauma
87. In
thyroid ophthalmopathy there is NOT
a)
Proptosis
b)
Ptosis
c)
Thickening of orbital tissues
d)
Restriction in eye movement
88. DRS
type II is characterized by all except
a)
Marcus jaw winking
b)
Crocodile tears
c)
Retraction of the eyeball as the eye
moves inward
d)
Poor abduction, good adduction
89. Which
color vision is hereditary in nature
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
All
90. Nepal
government signed the global initiative vision 2020 the right to sight in
a)
1998
b)
1999
c)
2000
d)
2001
91. Optotypes
of ETDRS contrast charts have
a)
Gradual progression of 5/4 ratio
b)
0.1 log unit larger than the ones in the
preceding line
c)
Charts can only be used either 2m or 4m
d)
Non-sheriff consistent number of letters
92. In
GAT, 4D of corneal astigmatism bring about the change in IOP error by
a)
1 mmofHg
b)
2 mm of Hg
c)
3 mm of HG
d)
4 mm of Hg
93. World
optometry day is observed in
a)
22 March
b)
23 March
c)
24 March
d)
25 March
94. Glaucoma
has the essential feature of
a)
Raised intra-ocular pressure
b)
Associated family history
c)
Visual field defect
d)
Tunnel vision
95. Which
of the following telescopes has the largest exit pupil
a)
7x50
b)
8x35
c)
10x20
d)
10x40
96. In
Bruckner test, the affected eye
a)
shines with dull, red reflex
b)
shines with bright, red reflex
c)
shines with dim, yellow reflex
d)
shines with bright, yellow reflex
97. In
which condition B Scan is suggested even if the media is clear?
a)
Absolute glaucoma with NPL vision
b)
Retrobulbar neuritis
c)
Retinal detachment
d)
Macular hole
98. Piezo-electric
crystals are used in
a)
Biometric probe
b)
Pneumatic Tonometer
c)
B scan transducer
d)
Ultrasonic pachymeter
99. The
removal of ocular structures with the sclera and extraocular muscle remaining
in situ is
a)
Enucleation
b)
Exenteration
c)
Evisceration
d)
Orbitotomy
100. With
regard to pin-hole, one is FALSE
a)
The vision through the pinhole is
usually worse in patient with macular disease
b)
It may allow presbyopic patients to read
comfortably without optical correction
c)
Failure of the vision to improve to 6/6
with pinhole indicates the presence of macular disease
d)
Too small a pinhole can affect vision
through interference
101. Spot
of stationary light fades away due to the retinal bleaching is described by
a)
Broca-Sulzer Effect
b)
Troxler effect
c)
Bruckner Belzowsky effect
d)
None
102. Saccadic
motion to the left involves…..as agonist
a)
Left medial rectus
b)
Right lateral rectus
c)
Left lateral rectus
d)
Both lateral recti
103. Age
related changes in the eye encompass all except
a)
Syneresis
b)
Dermatochalasis
c)
Xanthelasma
d)
Mesopia at higher level of ambient
luminance
104. The
exact anatomic location of intra-ocular lens to be implanted is
a)
Zonular fossa
b)
Capsular bag
c)
Intracapsular bag
d)
Vitreous cavity
105. The
prismatic effect when a +5Ds lens is decentered by 10mm is……prism diopter
a)
50
b)
0.5
c)
5
d)
2
106. Specular
microscopy visualizes mosaic pattern of
a)
Epithelium
b)
Endothelium
c)
Bowman’s layer
d)
Descemet’s membrane
107. The
donated cornea is cryopreserved in M-K medium at…..degree Celsius
a)
Less than 0
b)
2-8
c)
10-25
d)
28-37
108. Hypopyon
is the
a)
Blood in the AC
b)
Foreign body in the AC
c)
Pus in the AC
d)
Flares in the AC
109. In
case of Anisometropia,
a)
Of more than 1D in hyperopic patients
can usually be controlled through accommodation of the more hypermetropic eye
b)
Is a common cause of amblyopia in
patients with uncorrected low myopia
c)
Of recent onset may be caused by
development of posterior subcapsular cataract
d)
May result from unilateral central
serous retinopathy
110. Patient
with significant peripheral visual field loss may not be relieved from
a)
Prism with base towards the area of
visual field loss
b)
Mirror mounted on glasses
c)
Galilean telescope
d)
Concave lens
111. All
are tests of Eikonometry except
a)
Turville Test
b)
Brecher’s Procedure
c)
Horizontal Miles Procedures
d)
Forced duction test
112. Hiedelberg’s
Retinal tomography uses
a)
Lasers
b)
Infrared
c)
Neons
d)
Halogens
113. A
patient has -3..00/-3.00 x 180 spectacle Rx. A trial toric of -3.3/-3.00 x 170
is selected to observe right hand side rotation with respect to the patient by
10 degrees. The final power of the prescriptions, provided all other things are
constant, is:
a)
-3.00/-3.00 x 10
b)
-3.00/-2.5 x 10
c)
-3.00/-3.00 x 160
d)
-3.00/-2.5 x 180
114. The
materials used in making prosthetic eye
a)
Plasters of Paris
b)
Hydroxy-appetites
c)
Alginates
d)
Borro-sillicates
115. A
5ml vial of an ophthalmic drug contains……drops of medicines
a)
50-60
b)
80-90
c)
110-120
d)
140-150
116. The
pH value of human healthy tear is
a)
6.5
b)
6.8
c)
7.1
d)
7.4
117. Which
of the following drug has been recently postulated to be effective for the
reversal of crystalline aggregation and cataract formation?
a)
Cholecalciferol
b)
Lanosterol
c)
Inositol
d)
Fludrocortisol
118. The first antibiotic that was discovered by
humankind acted against which of the following bacterial mechanism
a)
Protein Synthesis
b)
DNA Synthesis
c)
Cell wall synthesis
d)
Folic Acid synthesis
119.
First order neuron is defined by
a)
Horizontal cells
b)
Retinal Bipolar Cells
c)
Retinal Ganglion Cells
d)
Amacrine cells
120. Pie in the sky defect in the visual field is
seen when a lesion affects
a)
Medullary optic lamina of optic
radiation
b)
Visuopsychic peristriate area 18
c)
Mayer's Loop
d)
Dorsolateral aspect of optic tract
121. A man has central corneal thickness of 542 μm
in the right eye with IOP 22 mmHg. Keeping all other parameters constant, what
would be the predicted IOP if his right eye would have measured 522 μm in
pachymetry?
a)
20 mmHg
b)
21 mmHg
c)
23mmHg
d)
24 mmHg
122.
The geometrical shape of a normative adult cornea can best be described as
a)
Prolate Ellipsoid
b)
Oblate Ellipsoid
c)
Prolate Spheroid
d)
Oblate Spheroid
123.
Due to an acquired retinal disease a person's visual condition was so worse
that he is diagnosed to fall under low vision criteria. He undergoes a
sequential psychological process in the order as:
a)
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining,
acceptance
b)
Denial, bargaining, anger, depression,
acceptance
c)
Denial, bargaining, anger, acceptance,
finding meaning
d)
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression,
acceptance
124.
Which are the FOUR original guiding principles for optometry profession stated
by Beauchamp and Childress ?
a)
Beneficence, justice, respect of
autonomy, non-maleficience
b)
Beneficence, justice, respect of
autonomy, confidentiality
c)
Beneficence, justice, non-maleficience,
collegiality
d)
Beneficience, justice, respect of
autonomy, protecting the vulnerable
125.
A monochromatic light comes from a source kept at 50 cm from a convex lens of 10
diopters. The approximate optical path distance between object and image if
this phenomenon occurs in air:
a)
40 cm
b)
60 cm
c)80
cm
d)
100 cm
126.
The critical cut-off value of corneal thickness to determine whether to go for
a refractive LASIK surgery is
a)
470
b)
500
c)
530
d)
550
127.
Of all below, one falls under low order aberrations
a)
Spherical aberration
b)
Secondary astigmatism
c)
Coma
d)
Piston
128.
The correctional mechanism against the lag of target to position on fovea is
called
a)
Vestibular reflex
b)
Version
c)
Saccade
d)
Pursuit
129.
All of the following represent a form of adaptation to neurogenic palsy of
extra-ocular muscles. Odd one out:
a)
Amblyopia
b)
Supression
c)
Torticollis
d)
Abnormal Retinal Correspondence
130.
Which of the following is not responsible for reduced corneal sensation?
a)
Neurotrophic keratitis
b)
Fungal corneal ulcer
c)
Penetrating Keratoplasty
d)
Hansen's Disease
131.
Mechanical obstruction in ocular motility cannot be diagnosed by
a)
Forced duction test
b)
Hess charting
c)
Force generation test
d)
Positional tonometry
132.
Bacteria that cannot break into the intact cornea
a)
Corneybacteerium diptheriae
b)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c)
Streptococcus hemolyticus
d)Nesseria
mengitidis
133.
The classical triad of Horner's syndrome is
a)
Mydriasis, ptosis and anhidrosis
b)
Miosis, proptosis and anhidrosis
c)
Miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis
d)
Anisocorea, proptosis and anhidrosis
134.
Mettendorf's dots are found in
a)
iris
b)
lens
c)
lens capsule
d)
vitreous
135.
The viewing of anterior chamber structures is possible if the rays of light
coming from the angle strikes the line normal to cornea at
a)
420
b)
460
c)
500
d)
540
136.
Which one of the following would you prioritize as ocular emergency?
a)
Corneal Abrasion
b)
Hyphema
c)
Macular Edema
d)
orbital cellulitis
137.
Cotton wool spots as seen in diabetic retinopathy lies in which layer of
retina?
a)
Internal Limiting Membrane
b)
Nerve fiber layer
c)
Outer Plexiform Layer
d)
Pigment Epithelial layer
138.
The clinical presentation of CRVO is most often seen in ……..retina
a)
Infero-nasal
b)
Infero-temporal
c)
supero-nasal
d)
supero-temporal
139.
Dilation of pupil while going in the dark demonstrate the integrity of
a)
Afferent Pathway
b)Efferent
Pathway
c)
Sympathetic Pathway
d)
Parasympathetic Pathway
140.
One is false about Ishihara Pseudo-isochromatic plates
a)
It consists of 4 types of diagnostic plates: vanishing, transformation,
hidden-digit, and qualitatively diagnostic.
b)
The only systematic difference between the figure and background dots is in
color: the figure is composed of dots of one or more colors, and the background
is composed of dots of different color or colors.
c)
The failure to read even the diagnostic plate is a sign of non-physiologic
visual loss
d)
Minimum distance BCVA required in order for the reliable results is 6/18
141. In a
before-and-after study design, the effect that brings about the error in
outcome variable when the measurement time after the treatment is significantly
delayed is called
a)
Regression effect
b)
Hawthorne effect
c)
Maturation effect
d)
Reactive effect
142. Which of
the following drug acts by inhibiting protein synthesis of micro-organism?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Natamycin
d) Acyclovir
143. Odd one out about
an ideal artificial tear substitute
a) should lower
the surface tension of the tear film
b) should be
preservative-free if intended for use by patients who require frequent
instillation
c) pH does not
account much as long as it is isotonic at 300 m Osm/L
d) should aid in
the formation of a hydrophilic layer that is compatible with adsorbed mucin and
enhance tear volume
144. One with the
lowest index of refraction is
a) Ophthalmic
Flint
b) Ophthalmic
Crown
c) Polycarbonate
d) Columbia
Resin
145. A +3.50 Ds
hypermetrope has a near point that is 50cm from her cornea when she is not
wearing her spectacles. With her spectacles (vertex distance 15mm) on, how far
from her cornea is her near point now located?
a) Infinity
b) 67.7 cm
c) 33.3 cm
d) None
146. What is the
spectacle magnification of a spectacle lens of back vertex power -5.00Ds
refractive index 1.523 and center thickness 4.0mm) made with a front surface
power if +5.00Ds and placed 13 mm from the cornea?
a) 0.95
b) 0.07
c) 2.35
d) 1.03
147. One is
false about the normal distribution curve
a) standard
normal variate implies how many standard deviation away is the given point from
the mean
b) mean, median
and mode all lie on a single plane which divides the curve into mirror halves
c) Within one
standard deviation interval, there is 68.26% of sample population
d) The maximum
probability of a sample being selected on a random picking is at three standard
deviation away from mean
148. one is not
a RGP complication
a) Residual
refractive error
b) Dimple veling
c) Lens flexure
d) Ptosis
149. Principle of
wavefront aberration finds the clinical utility in
a) refractive
and cataract surgeries
b) understanding
to minimize coma and secondary astigmatism
c) correcting
the piston
d) designing
wavefront-guided progressive lenses to counter high order aberrations
150. which
method of lamellar corneal transplant is most common in Nepal?
a) SALK
b) DALK
c) DLEK
d) DSAEK
151. Which of
the following part of the eye is not transparent?
a)
Cornea
b)
Conjunctiva
c)
Lens
d)
Iris
152. The portion
that connects eye to the brain is
a)
Retina
b)
Choroid
c)
Optic
Nerve
d)
Sclera
153. The
resolving power of the eye is called
a) vision
b) visual acuity
c) eye capacity
d) color vision
154. When
presenting visual acuity of a patient is 6/18, we call it
a) mild visual
impairment
b) moderate
visual impairment
c) low vision
d) severe visual
impairment
155. The person
is said to be blind when visual acuity is……in the better seeing eye
a) less than
6/60
b) less than
3/60
c) less than
1/60
d) not
perceiving the light
156. the chart
used to assess the visual acuity is
a) Ishihara
Chart
b) Near Acuity
chart
c) Snellen’s
chart
d) Pelli-Robson
chart
157. Most common
ocular disease that causes blindness in Nepal is
a) High power
b) glaucoma
c) cataract
d) trauma
158. The
treatment option for low vision is
a) refractive
error correction
b) surgery
c)
rehabilitation
d) medicines
159. The cause
of deafblind condition is mostly
a) due to trauma
b) congenital
c) viewing
eclipse
d) ear infection
& sinusitis
160. Leukocorea
is
a) childhood
condition which can be seen through torch light
b) white pupil
in one or both eye
c) a condition
that warrants referral to eye hospital soon as possible
161. All of the
following are the important Zernike's coefficients affecting visual quality
except
a) coma
b) spherical
aberration
c) Oblique
Astigmatism
d) Trefoil
162. one is
false
a) Compared with
shapes derived from Zernike polynomial analysis, the shapes derived from
Fourier analysis are more detailed, theoretically allowing for the measurement
and treatment of more highly aberrant corneas.
b) Myopia,
hyperopia, and regular astigmatism are all lower-order (second-order) aberrations
that can be
expressed as wavefront aberrations
c) Myopia
produces negative defocus while hyperopia produces positive defocus.
d) Regular
(cylindrical) astigmatism produces a wavefront aberration that has orthogonal
and oblique components
163. The underlying
main cause of night myopia is
a) induced
accommodation
b) spherical
aberration
c) Increased
depth of field
d) decreased
contrast sensitivity
164. Nine
diopters of myopia is to be corrected for the optical zone diameter of 3
mm. The excimer laser photoablation
depth should be
a) 9 micron
b) 27 micron
c) 81 micron
d) none
165. Which one
of the following causes of irregular astigmatism is self-reversible?
a) Keratoconus
b) Toric IOL
rotation
c) corneal
warpage due to RGP
d) Pellucid
marginal degeneration
166. The
hallmark sign of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is
a) Rubeosis
Irides
b) Cotton wool
spots
c) Neovascularization
d) Micro-aneurysm
167. Advanced
diabetic eye disease is a vision threatening condition most probably due to
a) Macular Edema
b) Cataract
c) Retinal
Detachment
d) retinal
arterial abnormalities
168. The
relative shift in refractive error is a commonly observed clinical phenomenon
in
a) HIV/AIDS
b) Rubella
c) Hypertension
d) Diabetes
mellitus
169. Vitamin A
deficiency dry eye is termed as
a)
Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)
b) Xerosis
c) Xerophthalmia
d) Sjogren
Syndrome
170. The role of
vitamin A in eye is
a) Synthesis of
photoreceptor proteins
b) Maintain the
transparency of ocular media
c) Facilitate in
the focusing mechanism of lens
d) Act as
effective anti-oxidant agent
171. One of the
following is strictly a corneal sign of Vitamin A deficiency
a) Keratinization
b) Xerosis
c) Keratomalacia
d) Nyctalopia
172. The most
commonly affected extra-ocular muscle in thyroid eye disease is
a) Lateral
Rectus
b) Inferior
Rectus
c) Medial Rectus
d) Inferior
Oblique
Answer b)
Inferior Rectus
173. In thyroid
eye disease, all of the following can be ocular signs EXCEPT
a) Lid lag on
lower gaze
b) Lid
retraction
c) staring or
bulging eyes
d) convergence
excess
174. A 37 year
old lady underwent ocular examination and there was clear signs of anterior
granulomatous uveits. Which of the following disease would you presume if this
uveitis has a systemic association?
a) Hashimoto's
disease or thyroiditis
b) Diabetes
Mellitus
c) Leprosy or Hansen's
disease
d) Xeophthalmia
175. Which of
the following bacterial species can readily and vigorously invade intact
cornea?
a) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
b) Corynebacterium
diptheriae
c)
Corynebacterium xerosis
d) Neisseria
meningitidis
176. Which of
the following correctly describes the retinal signs of hypertensive eye disease?
a) Focal arteriolar narrowing, venous outpouchings, copper wiring
b) Arteriovenous
nipping, tomato-splashed appearance, edema
c) arteriosclerosis,
flame-shaped hemorrhage, optic disc swelling
d) Genaralized
arteriolar narrowing, hard exudates, Hollenhorst plaques
177. All of the
infections can be vertically transmitted to a newborn child EXCEPT?
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) Rubella
c) Syphillis
d) Gonorrhea
178. Feature of
congenital rubella syndrome
a) cataract
b) Aniridia
c) Big eyes
d) Exotropia
179. Treatment
option for diabetic eye disease
a) Medical
therapy
b) surgical
therapy
c) laser therapy
d) All of the
above
180. HIV/AIDS most
commonly affects the human eye in
a) cornea
b) lens
c) retina
d) optic nerve
181. One of the
following is a binocular eye movement
a)
Extortion
b)
Depression
c)
Dextroversion
d)
Abduction
182. The primary
function of superior oblique muscle is
a)
Intortion
b)
Depression
c)
Elevation
d)
Abduction
183. Sixth
cranial nerve supplies which extra-ocular muscle?
a)
Levator
palpebral superioris
b)
Lateral
Rectus
c)
Superior
Oblique
d)
Inferior
Oblique
184. Magnitude
of tropia can be found by
a)
Cover
test
b)
Alternate
cover test
c)
Prism
Cover test
d)
Cover
Uncover test
185. Which one
is monocular phenomenon?
a)
Eccentric
Fixation
b)
Anomalous
correspondence
c)
Suppression
d)
Stereopsis
186. In
Hirschberg corneal reflection test, each 1 mm of decentration of the corneal
reflection roughly corresponds to……..of deviation of visual axis
a)
7°
b)
15°
c)
30°
d)
45°
187. Krimsky
test needs
e)
Trial
Frame
f)
Prism
g)
Maddox
rod
h)
Synoptophore
188. The unit of
measurement of convergence is
a)
Arc
meter
b)
Meter
diopter
c)
Meter
angle
d)
Radian
diopter
189. Suppression
is a sensory adaptation to avoid
a)
Asthenopia
b)
Aniseikonia
c)
binocular
rivalry
d)
diplopia
190. The four
prism diopter base out test is a clinical test for
a)
simultaneous
macular perception
b)
Small
suppression scotoma
c)
Anomalous
retinal correspondence
d)
Functional
Amblyopia
191. Stereopsis
is tested by
a)
stereogram
b)
haploscope
c)
Ishihara
Chart
d)
Wesson
Card
192. Stimulus to
accommodation is
a)
diplopia
b)
ghost
image
c)
blur
d)
nearness
193.
Accommodative facility can be clinically measured by
a)
prism
flippers
b)
Jackson
cross cylinder
c)
Minus
lens
d)
Lens
flippers
194. Age related
physiological decrease in accommodation leads to
a)
presbyopia
b)
plus
power
c)
Accommodative
excess
d)
Pseudomyopia
195. Gross test
of convergence can be done by
a)
torch
and pencil
b)
pencil
and scale
c)
Occluder
and target
d)
torch
and occluder
197. The typical
irregular against-the-rule astigmatism in which the topographic steepening
nasally and temporally connects inferiorly is seen in
a) Keratoconus
b) Post-pk
c) PMD
d) Keratoglobus
198. One thing
is true about the Maddox wing:
a.
Certain
time should be given to the patient to allow the binocular dissociation
b.
This
can be employed to measure the deviation both for near and distance
c.
It
cannot measure the latent cyclo-deviations
d.
Works
well even if the patient has anomalous retinal correspondence
199. Fluorophotometry
is an useful measure of
a)
the
pattern of sodium fluorescein in RGP fitting
b)
the
expulsion of post-lens tear volume in Silicone hydrogels
c)
tear
exchange in hydrogel soft lenses
d)
movement
of debris and metabolites in pre-corneal tear film
200. According
to Holden and Mertz criteria, hydrogel lens with the critical oxygen
transmissibility of 87.0 ± 3.3 x 1-9 (cm x ml O2) /(sec X ml x mmHG) may create
the edema of……..on overnight wear
a)
4%
b)
8%
c)
9.9%
d)
12.1%
201. In
a typical commercial PAL, a progressive corridor is given by
a) length from the distance circle
to the near circle
b) length from the prism reference point
to near add circle
c) length from the fitting cross to
near add circle
d) length from fitting cross to the point
with 85% of near add
202. A
point in the horizontal line 3.0mm away from the umbilics of a progressive lens
has a 6 diopters of astigmatism. What is its rate of change in the spherical
add power per mm?
a)
0.5
b)
1
c)
1.8
d)
2
203. A bifocal
has following parameters: segment depth: 4.5mm, segment drop 1.5mm, segment
width 6.5mm segment inset 2mm. What is your expected segment height for this
bifocal lens?
a)
2mm
b)
4mm
c)
6mm
d)
8mm
204. In the
brown tinting of an ophthalmic lens, which element is most likely to be used?
a)
Uranium
b)
Sulphur
c)
Nickel
d)
Cerium
205. In
subtractive color system, the three primary colors are
a)
Red,
green, yellow
b)
Cyan,
Magenta, yellow
c)
Red,
green, blue
d)
Cyan,
magenta, green
206. One is
false about bifocals
a)
In
flat-top bifocals the segment optical center is generally 5 mm below the top
b)
Blended
bifocals and fused bifocals terms can be used interchangeably.
c)
Ribbon-segments
are available only in glass
d)
If
the major reference point falls farther than 2 mm outward from the geometrical
center, the total inset will be out.
207. Geneva lens
measure works closely on the principle of
a)
Lens
guage regression formula
b)
Vector
law of Radiuscope
c)
spherometer
and lensometer
d)
Sagittal
depth formula
208. A CR-39
prism shifts an object by 8 degrees. The apical angle of this prism should
approximate to:
a)
2
degrees
b)
4
degrees
c)
12
degrees
d)
16
degrees
209. Find out
the correct tube length of a Galiliean telescope whose objective and eyepiece
are of forty and twenty diopters respectively.
a)
2cm
b)
2.5cm
c)
6.5
cm
d)
7.5
cm
210. The
ophthalmic lenses did have inbuilt UV protective properties, which contact
lenses did not. Later to incorporate these properties in contact lens a
chemical additive was added, the name of which is
a)
Chromatin
b)
Chromosphere
c)
Chromophore
d)
Chromium
211. The ghost
images seen in high power spectacles are the product of
a)
Internal
reflection
b)
Spherical
aberration
c)
Prismatic
effect
d)
Jack-in-the-box
phenomenon
212. A patient
is advised to have a variable vertex distances for reading, intermediate and
distance viewing. Which feature of frame would you think suite her?
a)
Comfort
cable
b)
Skull
temple
c)
Library
temple
d)
Clip-on
frame
213.Corneal epithelium
consists 3 layers of cells. Exclude the one which does not fall in those
layers:
a)
Goblet
cells
b)
Superficial
cells
c)
Wing
cells
d)
Basal
cells
214. These
lenses incorporate a reading or near segment located eccentrically. These lens
move on the cornea in such a way that the wearer views distance and near
through the appropriate segment at the appropriate time. To be effective, the
contact lens must translate upwards on the cornea when eyes look down to view
near objects. As the design is rotationally asymmetric, lens must remain
correctly at all times. All points make a case for
a)
Concentric
design contact lenses
b)
Diffractive
design contact lenses
c)
Aspheric
design contact lenses
d)
Alternating
vision contact lenses
215. One of the
following is true
a)
Lens
flexure will induce a plus cylinder whose axis is aligned with flattest corneal
meridian
b)
Lens
flexure will induce a minus cylinder whose axis is aligned with flattest
corneal meridian
c)
Lens
flexure will induce a plus cylinder whose axis is aligned with steepest corneal
meridian
d)
Lens
flexure will induce a minus cylinder whose axis is aligned with steepest
corneal meridian
216.
Nepal Eye Bank was established in
a)
1981
b)
1994
c)
1999
217.
Endothelial decompensation occurs if endothelial cell density is below
a)
2000/mm
sq
b)
1000
mm sq
c)
500
/mm sq
d)
250/
mm sq
a.
Polymegathism
b.
Blebs
c.
Pleomorphism
d.
Guttata
219.
Hospital Cornea Retrieval Program from Nepal Eye Bank was started in
a)
2008
b)
2011
c)
2013
d)
2015
220.
Enormous corneal sensitivity is due to the thousands of nerves entering into
the cornea. The number of nociceptors approximate to
a)
5500
/mm sq
b)
7000
/mm sq
c)
10,000
/mm sq
d)
15,
000/ mmsq
221.
Which one is not a contraindication for donor tissue for a cornea transplant?
a)
Hepatitis
B and C
b)
HIV
c)
Lung
Cancer
d)
Syphilis
222.
One of the following seems the most feasible age criteria to be a cornea donor
(death at:)
a)
Birth-100
years
b)
2
years - 80 years
c)
5
years - 70 years
223.
Prior to tissue retrieval the technician should wash the anterior ocular
surface by sterile phosphate buffered saline followed by 3 minutes rinsing of
povidone iodine solution whose percentage should be
a)
2%
b)
5%
c)
10%
224.
The corneal tissue would not be worth for optical transplantation if the
endothelial count is below
a)
2000
/ sq mm
b)
1500
sq mm
c)
1000
sq mm
d)
2500
sq mm
225.
The first surgeon who performed the penetrating keratoplasty in Nepal is
a)
Dr.
Dev Narayan Shah
b)
Dr.
Madan Prasad Upadhyaya
c)
Dr.
ND Joshi
d)
Dr.
PC Karmacharya
226.
McCarey-Kaufman medium is a tissue storage media where we can store the corneal
tissue for up to:
a)
3-4
days
b)
7-8
days
c)
14-15
days
227.
Optisol cornea storage media is enriched with
a)
Mucopolysaccharides
and gentamicin
b)
Chondroitin
sulfate and dextran
c)
Glucose
and benzalkonium chloride
d)
Sucrose
and streptomicin
228.
Hypothermic storage modality of donated tissue the chamber temperature is
maintained at
a)
Below
0 degree Celsius
b)
2
to 8 degree Celsius
c)
1
to 15 degree Celsius
229.
DSAEK, a type of corneal lamellar graft, stands for
a)
Descement
Stripping Automated Epithelial Keratoplasty
b)
Descement
Stripping Automated Endothelial Keratoplasty
c)
Directly
Stimulated Alloplastic Endothelial Keratoplasty
230.
If a cornea retrieved from a crematorium disqualifies for optical transplant in
that the polymegathism is 80% of total endothelial. We can do all of the
following to this tissue except
a)
use
for tectonic graft
b)
use
for therapeutic purpose
c)
use
for research and training
231. When
the whole eye ball is enucleated, we can also preserve the severed sclera in
90% ethanol after processing. The preservation period during which
it is accepted for surgical procedures
a)
15
days
b)
30
days
c)
6
months
d)
2 years
232.
The poor candidate for eye donation
a)
Old
age
b)
Bilateral
cataract surgery
c)
Suspected
social behavior
d)
All
233.
The first human corneal graft was done in 1886 by
a.
Edward
Konrad
b.
Von
Hippel
c.
Ludwig
Rehn
d.
Ebers
Papyrus
234.
Event of graft rejection can occur in the recipient in
a)
6
months
b)
1
years
c)
2
years
d)
Throughout
life
235.
Which disease warrants an excellent prognosis in penetrating keratoplasty?
a)
Keratocounus
b)
Inactive
herpetic scars
c)
Keratoglobus
d)
Severe
dry eyes
237.
One among the following is false about the Krimsky test
a)
Prism
base is kept opposite to the direction of deviation
b)
It
is used when patient has manifest deviation and fairly poor vision in one eye
c)
Estimated
amount of prism is kept in the front of fixating eye
d)
Patient
fixates at light kept at 6m distance
238. Which portion of the visible spectrum of light
is particularly harmful to the retina?
a) 390-400
nm
b) 440-450
nm
c) 550-560
nm
d) 700
– 710 nm
239. which of the following materials would you
least prefer to recommend for a typical sportswear?
a) Polycarbonate
b) NXT
c) CR-39
d) Trivex
240. Which sunwear filter does not taint the
perception of natural colors?
a) Amber
Filters
b) Photochromatic
filter
c) Green-range
tints
d) Neutral
density filters
241. Normal indoor office environment should have a
luminance of
a) 100-200
Lux
b) 300-500
Lux
c) 600-
750 Lux
d) 800-1000
Lux
242. In Age Related Eye Disease Study Phase 2
(AREDS2), which two of the following ingredients were replaced in place of
beta-carotene used in AREDS1?
a) Vitamin
C and E
b) Zinc
and Copper
c) Lutean
and Zeaxanthin
d) Flavinoids
and Omega-3 fatty acids
243. False one is
a) The
average latency of initiation of saccades is more than that of pursuits.
b) If
a target trajectory is predictable then latencies for both saccades and pursuit
can be minimized
c) Pursuit
eye movements have the capacity to follow targets at speeds of up to 40
degrees/second (or faster if the trajectory is predictable)
d) saccadic eye movements have the capacity for
speeds up to 100 degrees/second
Answers
|
1
d |
2
b |
3
b |
|
4
d |
5
a |
6
b |
|
7
d |
8
b |
9
c |
|
10
d |
11
c |
12
a |
|
13
c |
14
a |
15
c |
|
16
d |
17 d |
18
a |
|
19
b |
20
b |
21
b |
|
22
b |
23
d |
24
c |
|
25
a |
26
b |
27
b |
|
28
d |
29
b |
30
a |
|
31
b |
32
c |
33
a |
|
34
a |
35
b |
36
a |
|
37
d |
38
c |
39
d |
|
40
a |
41
d |
42
d |
|
43
d |
44
c |
45
c |
|
46
d |
47
c |
48
b |
|
49
d |
50
c |
51
d |
|
52
a |
53
b |
54
b |
|
55
c |
56
c |
57
b |
|
58
d |
59
b |
60
c |
|
61
b |
62
c |
63
d |
|
64
c |
65
c |
66
a |
|
67
d |
68
b |
69
b |
|
70
c |
71
d |
72
a |
|
73
c |
74
d |
75
d |
|
76
d |
77
b |
78
d |
|
79
c |
80
c |
81
b |
|
82
d |
83
d |
83
d |
|
85
d |
86
b |
87
b |
|
88
d |
89
d |
90
b |
|
91
c |
92
a |
93
b |
|
94
c |
95
a |
96 d |
|
97
c |
98
c |
99
c |
|
100
c |
101
b |
102
c |
|
103
c |
104
b |
105
c |
|
106
b |
107
b |
108
c |
|
109
b |
110
c |
111
d |
|
112
a |
113
d |
114
c |
|
115
b |
116
d |
117
b |
|
118c |
119
b |
120
c |
|
121
b |
122
a |
123
d |
|
124
a |
125
c |
126
a |
|
127
d |
128
c |
129
c |
|
130
b |
131
b |
132
c |
|
133
c |
134
c |
135
a |
|
136
d |
137
b |
138
d |
|
139
c |
140
d |
141
c |
|
142
b |
1143
c |
144
d |
|
145
d |
146
a |
147
d |
|
148
a |
149
c |
150
b |
|
151
d |
152
c |
153
b |
|
154
a |
155
c |
156
c |
|
157
c |
158
c |
159
b |
|
160
d |
161
c |
162
b |
|
163
b |
164
b |
165
c |
|
166
c |
167
c |
168
d |
|
169
c |
170
a |
171
c |
|
172
b |
173
d |
174
c |
|
175
a |
176
c |
177
d |
|
178
a |
179
d |
180
c |
|
181c |
182
a |
183
b |
|
184
c |
185
a |
186
a |
|
187
b |
188
c |
189
d |
|
190
b |
191
a |
192
c |
|
193
d |
194
a |
195
b |
|
196
a |
197
c |
198
a |
|
199
b |
200
a |
201
d |
|
202
b |
203
d |
204
c |
|
205
b |
206
b |
207
d |
|
208
d |
209
b |
210
c |
|
211
a |
212
c |
213
a |
|
214
d |
215
a |
216
b |
|
217
c |
218
c |
219
c |
|
220
b |
221
c |
222
b |
|
223
b |
224
a |
225
c |
|
226
a |
227
b |
228
b |
|
229
b |
230
d |
231
d |
|
232
d |
233
b |
234
d |
|
235
a |
236
a |
237
d |
|
238
b |
239
c |
240
d |
|
241
b |
242
c |
243d |
|
244 |
245 |
246 |
|
247 |
248 |
249 |
|
250 |
|
|
If you want to see the Past Questions of 2021 Medical Education Commission of M. Optom, click Here.
 in Optometry and Ophthalmology){kind=link}
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