Welcome everyone. As is said, "Old is Gold," We would like to present you the past questions that appeared in the Master of Optometry entrance examination taken by Medical Education Commission (MEC) in the year 2021 (2078). These questions were compiled by Ms Jenisha Bhattarai and Ms Aastha Subedi, who are the students in the third batch of Master of Optometry enrolled in Himalaya Eye Institute (HEI) Pokhara, under Pokhara University.
 |
| Left: Ms Jenisha Bhattarai; Right: Ms Aastha Subedi |
Basic
science
1. What is deducted from plasma
to form serum?
a. Thrombin
b. Fibrinogen
c. RBC
d. Leucocyte
2. Which is not a part of digestive system?
a. Ileum
b. Rectum
c. Spleen
d. Pharynx
3. NSAISs works by_?
a. Inhibiting prostaglandin
synthesis by cyclooxygenase
b. Increasing oxytocin level
c. Decreasing adrenalin level
d. Increasing arachidonic acid
4. Which of the following
regarding hepatitis is true?
a. Increased transmission
through contact
b. Transmitted by nasal droplet
c. Transmitted by feces
d. Transmitted only through
inoculation
5. For a chloroplast to
replicate which of the following is true?
a. Only DNA is needed
b. Only RNA is needed
c. Either DNA or RNA is needed
d. Both DNA and RNA is needed
6. What helps in digestion of
nitrogen?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Iron
d. Calcium
7. What determines the
modification of disease?
a. Age
b. Gene
c. Social
d. None
8. Which does not lie in triad
of disease?
a. Host
b. Agent
c. Environment
d. Service provider
9. What is the end product of
anaerobic respiration?
a. CO2
b. Oxygen
c. Lactic acid
d. NADPH
Ocuar
anatomy and physiology
10. Which bone is not present in
orbital floor?
a. Maxillary
b. Zygomatic
c. Lacrimal
d. All
11. Which of the following is
not related with medial orbital wall?
a. Lesser wing of sphenoid
b. Lacrimal
c. Ethmoid
d. Maxillary
12. Which nerve is most likely
to be affected by intracranial injury?
a. VI
b. IV
c. III
d. II
13. Eye movement is most likely
to be affected by
a. Cerebellum lesion
b. Mid brain lesion
c. Pons varolli lesion
d. Occipital lesion
14. Vossious ring is seen in?
a. Cornea
b. Lens
c. Iris
d. Retina
15. How many rod cells are
present in retina?
a. 105
b. 1025
c. 1015
d. 1050
16. Which collagen type is
present predominantly in lens capsule?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
17. Lens is derived from?
a. Neuro ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Surface ectoderm
d. Melanocytes
Visual
science
18. VEP output is the function
of pathway foem
a. Retina to cortex
b. Ganglion cells
c. Bipolar cells
d. Retina
19. Objective method of
measuring vision?
a. Tumbling E
b. PLT
c. HOTV
d. VEP
20. Objective method of
measuring vision in closed eye is?
a. ERG
b. VEP
c. EOG
d. Humphrey
21. Which of the following is
true?
a. Midget bipolar cells synapse
with magnocellular cortical pathway
b. Diffuse bipolar cell synapse
with parvocellular pathway
c. S cone bipolar cell synapse
with small bistratified cells giving rise to konio pathway
d. None
22. According to Kollner’s rule,
R-G defect is present in all except
a. Inner retina
b. Outer retina
c. Optic nerve
d. Visual pathway
23. Theory of primary colour
doesn’t follow
a. Scalar law
b. Associative law
c. Additive law
d. Subtractive law
24. Which has greater spatial
and temporal summation?
a. Scotopic system
b. Photopic system
c. Photopic and scotopic
respectively
25. Visual acuity is based on?
A. Theory of descending limits
B. Theory of ascending limits
C. Constant stimuli
D. Staircase method
26. Which is true about lax
criterion?
a. Increased hits
b. Increased false positive
c. Increased misses
d. Increased false negative
27. Red green colour
discrimination starts at
a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
28. A wave ERG indicate action
of?
a. Bipolar
b. Ganglion cells
c. Rods
d. Amacrine cells
29. A person having only one
photopigment
a. Cannot discriminate colour
b. Can match intensities
c. Can adjust color to dull and
dim intensities
d. None
30. Which is true about
frequency doubling?
a. Tests temporal summation
b. Tests colour vision
c. Measures Visual field
d. All
31. Motion is detected by
a. Infero temporal
b. Parieto ventral
c. Mid temporal
d. Dorso lateral
32. Which is true about fovea to
striate cortex magnification?
a. Fovea=0.1%, cortex
magnification=1%
b. Fovea=0.01%, cortex
magnification=8%
c. Fovea=0.1%, cortex magnification=8%
d. Fovea=0.01%, cortex
magnification=1%
33. Father is normal but mother
is carrier of colour vision defect, which of the following is true?
a. All daughters are carrier
b. 50% sons are affected
c. 50% sons are carrier
d. All daughters are normal
- Hierarchical processing
means?
a. Moving from complex to
simple
b. Moving from simple to
complex
c. Moving from simple to simple
d. Moving from complex to
complex
35. Brightness amoriated law is?
a. Talbot plateau law
b. Bruce bartley effect
c. Stiles Crawford effect
d. Broca Sulzer effect
36. Cones get oriented for
maximum stimulation. This is_?
a. Kollner’s law
b. Rayleigh criterion
c. Stiles Crawford effect
d. Broca Sulzer effect
Ocular disease
37. Thin cornea is seen in
a. Keratoconus
b. Keratoglobus
c. Corneal dystrophy
d. Bullous keratopathy
38. Monocular diplopia is seen
in
a. Keratoconus
b. Keratoglobus
c. Albinism
d. Down’s syndrome
39. Monocular polyopia is seen
in
a. Viral keratitis
b. Bacterial keratitis
c. Fungal keratitis
d. Chlamydial keratitis
40. Which of the glaucoma is
provocative
a. Nirmal tension glaucoma
b. High tension glaucoma
c. POAG
d. PACG
41. Which feature is least
likely to be present in POAG?
a. Enlarged blind spot
b. Arcuate field defect
c. Seidel defect
d. Quadrantopia
42. A person has early
glaucomatous signs. Which is likely to be true?
a. Oval cupping
b. Round cupping
c. Cup: disc= 0.8:1
d. Cup :disc = 0.6:1
43. A person has only 10% VF
remaining, VA is 6/6, which is likely to be true?
a. Cup :disc =0.9:1
b. Cup :disc = 0.3:1
c. Cup :disc = 0.2:1
d. Cup :disc = 0.6:1
44. Glass blower cataract is
caused by?
a. UV rays
b. IR rays
c. High wavelength visible
radiation
d. Low wavelength visible radiation
45. Problem in near vision than
in distance vision is caused by
a. Cortical cataract
b. Nuclear cataract
c. PSCC
d. Blue dot cataract
46. Nuclear sclerosis causes
a. Myopia
b. Hyperopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Presbyopia
47. Cataract surgery has greater
chance of inducing
a. WTR astigmatism
b. ATR astigmatism
c. Oblique astigmatism
d. Chances of any of the above
48. What is essential in
glaucoma?
a. Optic neuropathy
b. Visual field defect
c. Glaucomatous cupping
d. Increase in IOP
49. A patient has infero nasal
thinning of cornea. He probably has?
a. Keratoglobus
b. Keratoconus
c. PMD
d. Corneal dystrophy
50. A patient comes to your
clinic complaining that he notices diplopia in all gazes and is unable to read
small prints. What is the probable diagnosis?
a. IV nerve palsy
b. III nerve palsy
c. VI nerve palsy
d. VII nerve palsy
51. A patient comes with
bitemporal hemianopia. How can you prescribe prism to relieve her symptom?
a. Base temporal
b. Base nasal
c. Base superior
d. Base inferior
- Cataract causes _ blur?
a. Central blur
b. Peripheral blur
c. Diffuse blur
Quadrantic blur
Diagnostic
and investigative part of optometry
53. A person has dense cataract
such that posterior segment is not visible properly. Which of the following
test would you do before cataract surgery?
a. FFA
b. USG
c. Laser interferometry
d. Coherence tomography
54. What measures peripheral
field?
a. Humphrey field analyze
b. Goldmann
c. Amsler grid
d. Tangent screen
55. A 50 yrs old patient with VA
6/9 with -2.50Dsph has monocular diplopia and difficulty driving at night.
Which of the following test would you do?
a. Retinoscopy
b. FFA
c. Laser interfrometry
d. CCT
56. Which background letter are
clearer in overcorrected hyperopia
a. Green
b. Red
c. Equally blur
d. Equally clear
57. Reverse illumination is used
to observe?
a. Foreign body
b. Microcystic corneal edema
c. Microcysts
d. Macrocysts
58. Guttata is observed in
a. Specular microscopy
b. Retroillumination
c. Diffuse illumination
d. Indirect illumination
59. Which of the following is
true about indirect ophthalmoscopy?
a. Image is real and erect
b. Image is virtual and erect
c. Image is real and inverted
d. Image is virtual ans
inverted
60. Which grade of Van Herick
has the widest angle?
a. Grade IV
b. Grade III
c. Grade II
d. Grade 0
61. Schirmer test I measures
a. Total secretion
b. Basal secretion
c. Reflex secretion
d. Hyperlacrimative secretion
62. A 52 years old can now read
with a little difficulty without wearing his presbyopic glasses . What might have caused this?
a. Cortical cataract
b. Nuclear cataract
c. PSCC
d. Cuneiform cataract
63. FFA fluorescein dye is
injected in
a. Anterior jugular vein
b. Antecubital vein
c. Anterior vascicular vein
d. Ethmoidal vein
64. Pressure in central retinal
artery is measured by
a. Tonometry
b. Retinal tomography
c. Ophthalmoscope
d. Ophthalmodynamometry
65. Contrast sensitivity is
developed at
a. 3 months
b. 9 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
66. With age visual acuity
reduces by
a. 0.1 log units
b. 1 log units
c. 2 log units
d. 3 log units
67. Wavefront aberration is used
in
a. Placido disc
b. Keratometry
c. Corneal topography
d. Retinal tomography
68. What measures central visual
field
a. Retinal tomography
b. Corneal tomography
c. Humphrey Visual Field
analyzer
d. Goldmann
69. In FFA, cystoids macular
edema shows _ appearance?
a. Smoke stack
b. Ink blot dye
c. Flower petal
d. Tomato splash
70. A child has albinism. What
would you carefully evaluate posterior segment for?
a. Optic coloboma
b. Optic disc hypoplasia
c. Choroidal thinning
d. Drusens
71. Fransworth D15 detects?
a. Tritan defect
b. Protan defect
c. Deutan defect
d. Protan, deutan and tritan
defect
72. Which of the following is
least likely to cause difficuly in morbidity
a. Visual acuity
b. Visual field
c. Color vision
d. Contrast sensitivity
73. Aphakia shows _ purkinje
image?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
74. To a patient with Alzheimer’s
disease which method is suitable?
a. HOTV test
b. LogMAR test
c. E chart
d. Snellen’s chart
75. A patient complains that he misses
the beginning of every line while reading. Which of the following would yoy do
for diagnosis?
a. Goldmann visual field
b. Humphrey field
c. Amsler grid
d. Tangent screen test
76. Fleinbloom test consists of
a. Numbers
b. Letters
c. Pictures
d. All of the above
77. Sunset syndrome is caused
by?
a. Inferiorly subluxated lens
b. Superiorly subluxated lens
c. Inferiorly dislocated lens
d. Superiorly dislocated lens
78. What is the actual IOP in
thin cornea?
a. Greater than shown by
tonometer
b. Less than that shown by
tonometr
c. Equal to that shown by
tonometer
d. 2/3rd of that
shown by tonometer
79. MN reader measures?
a. Persuits
b. Saccades
c. Reading fluency
d. Visual acuity
80. LASIK surgery uses
a. ND YAG laser
b. Argon Laser
c. Excimer laser
d. Red laser
Ophthalmic
dispensing and low vision
81. What is the magnification of
a magnifier of 12D used at 40cm?
a. 3.6
b. 4.8
c. 5.2
d. 1.4
82. What is the equivalent power
of magnifier (20D) used with bifocal of 3D at a distance of 10cm?
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
83. If a patient can read N8 at
25cm and wants to read a novel at font N8, then what is the magnification of
magnifier required?
a. 1.5x
b. 2.5x
c. 3.5x
d. 3x
84. In a PAL lens . distance
power is -1.00/-3.00x90,intermediate power is +0.5/-3.00x90 and near power is
+1.5/-3.00x90. What is the percentage of intermediate power?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 77%
d. 80%
85. What is the prismatic effect
induced in an ultex lens whose segment top is 5mm below distance optical
center?
a. 14mm
b. 36mm
c. 28mm
d. 18mm
86. Which of the following is
non optical?
a. Sugar
b. Water
c. Tartaric acid
d. Silicon oil
87. In which type of frame shape
does datum’s system deviate more from Boxing system?
a. Round
b. Square
c. Aviator
d. Cat eye
88. Which face shape is
considered worst for glasses?
a. Round
b. Square
c. Base up triangle
d. Base down triangle
89. Boxing system denoting 40□20 in a frame whwre IPD is 62. What is the
decentration required for lens?
a. 2mm
b. 3mm
c. 1mm
d. 4mm
90. Compensated vertical
prismatic effect is least in?
a. Executive segment
b. Ribbon segment
c. Ultex segment
d. Kryptok segment
91. Segment height doesn’t
depend on
a. Posture
b. Add
c. Style
d. Height of person
92. Which lens do we use in
casual wear?
a. Casual lens
b. Perfect lens
c. Tinted lens
d. Standard lens
93. What kind of glasses should not be worn in
high myopia?
a. Round frame
b. Square off
c. Small size frame
d. High index glasses
94. Which type of frame is
inappropriate for pediatric patients?
a. Wide front
b. Large splay angle
c. Flatter pantoscopic tilt
d. Larger frontal angle
95. Increase in peripheral
astigmatism in PAL depends upon mainly?
a. Add power
b. Shape of frame
c. Vertex distance
d. Splay angle
96. Roving ring scotoma is
present in?
a. Minus lens
b. Astigmatic lens
c. Aphakic lens
d. Presbyopic lens
97. Locus of points in a wave
which are in same phase is called?
a. Wave amplitude
b. Wave front
c. Wave circle
d. Wave circumference
98. What is the prismatic effect
of a prism at a point perpendicular to the direction of BO?
a. ¼
b. ½
c. 0
d. 1
99. Anterior focal length of a
reduced eye in air is_?
a. 20 mm
b. 23.4 mm
c. 17 mm
d. 18 mm
100.
What happens when a myopic patient uses Galilean telescope to clear the
image?
a. Power of objective lens
increases and tube length increases
b. Power of objective lens
decreases and tube length decreases
c. Power of objective lens
increases and tube length decreases
d. Power of objective lens
decreases and tube length increases
101.
Photochromatic lens is good in?
a. Buphthalmos
b. Corneal vascularization
c. Corneal dystrophy
d. Band shaped keratopathy
102.
False about ocular albinism is?
a. Albinism is constant
b. Patient may have high
astigmatism
c. Patient may have foveal
hypoplasia
d. Females suffer more than the
males
103.
Which is the viewing distance of CCTV print?
a. 40 cm
b. 33 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 25 cm
104.
Telescope cannot be used for?
a. Tracking
b. Walking
c. Scanning
d. Spotting
105.
Spotting by telescope means?
a. Focusing and finding object
b. Synchronizing head movement
with object
c. Viewing the adjacent zones
of fixated object
d. Quick viewing of objects
from center to extreme periphery
106.
Reverse telescope is used in advanced cases of?
a. ARMD
b. ROP
c. RP
d. Retinal detachment
107.
N8 subtends_?
a. 5 min of arc at 1 m
b. 5 min of arc at 2 m
c. 5 min of arc at 40 cm
d. 5 min of arc at 33 cm
108.
Most commonly used lens predominantly for near is?
a. E segment
b. D segment
c. Ultex segment
d. Trifocal lens
109.
Which lens is best for monochromatic aberrations?
a. Aplanatic
b. Aspheric
c. Achromatic
d. Tinted
110.
Color seen in thin films is due to?
a. Polarization
b. Interference
c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion
111.
Longitudinal wave doesn’t suffer?
a. Polarization
b. Interference
c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion
112.
Light wave on travelling to another medium does not change in?
a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Velocity
d. Color
113.
Diffraction is easier at?
a. Round edge
b. Flat edge
c. Half round
d. Half flat
114.
Which ophthalmic lens tint is used for neurological problems?
a. Purple
b. Brown
c. Amber
d. Pink
Contact lens and ocular prosthesis
115.
Which contact lens is best for pediatric patient?
a. Silsoft lens
b. RGP lens
c. Soft lens
d. Scleral lens
116.
Which of the following condition results in maximum tight fitting of contact lens?
a. Increase in TD and increase
in BOZR
b. Increase in TD and decrease
in BOZR
c. Decrease in TD and increase
in BOZR
d. Decrease in TD and decrease
in BOZR
117.
What percentage of hypoxia results in corneal folds?
a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 10%
d. 15%
118.
How can we decrease 3 and 9 o’clock staining?
a. Increase TD
b. Decrease TD
c. Increase BOZR
d. Decrease BOZR
119.
Which of the following disinfection system may result in deposits in
contact lens?
a. Thermal disinfection
b. Chemical disinfection
c. H2O2 disinfection
d. Alcohol disinfection
120.
What percentage of O2 is required to prevent corneal edema?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 3%
d. 4%
121.
Tinted contact lens with clear pupillary area is recommended in ?
a. Central corneal scar
b. Mid peripheral corneal scar
c. Amblyopia occlusion
d. Corneal dystrophy
122.
In DYMED what is used?
a. Byguanides
b. Isopropyl alcohol
c. Benzyl alcohol
d. PHMB
123.
The following condition arises when a hypermetropic patient switches
from spectacles to contact lens?
a. More convergence, more
accommodation
b. Less convergence, less
accommodation
c. More convergence, less
accommodation
d. Less convergence, more
accommodation
124.
Soft lens is damaged most by?
a. Heat
b. Chemical
c. Water
d. Sugar
125.
What kind of deposits are more common in silicone hydrogel?
a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Fatty acid
d. Carbohydrate
126.
In a toric contact lens lens rotated in right eye. What is likely to be
contact lens power when he wore spectacles of -6.50/-4.00*170?
a. -6.50/-3.50*180
b. -6.50/-4.00*170
c. -6.00/-4.00*180
d. -6.00/-4.00*170
127.
On applying a RGP contact lens, vertical meridian shows more
fluorescein and horizontal meridian shows little fluorescein. What might be the
case?
a. Flat RGP fitted at WTR
b. Flat RGP fitted at ATR
c. Steep RGP fitted at WTR
d. Steep RGP fitted at ATR
128.
In which case does fitting remain same?
a. Increase TD, decrease BOZR
b. Increase TD, increase BOZR
c. Decrease TD, decrease BOZR
d. Decrease TD, increase BOZR
129.
While wearing RGP lens, vision cleared immediately after blink. What
might be the case?
a. Tight fit
b. Inadequate fit
c. Flat fit
d. Optimum fit
130.
A RGP lens worn displaced superotemporally. What is the remedy?
a. Same TD, flatter BOZR
b. Increase TD, same BOZR
c. Increase TD, increase BOZR
d. Decrease TD, decrease BOZR
131.
Which of the following is least useful for low vision?
a. Spectacles
b. Contact lens
c. Typoscope
d. Cane
132.
A patient has ametropic and emmetropic image size ratio =1:1 on wearing
contact lens. He has?
a. Axial myopia
b. Axial hyperopia
c. Curvatural myopia
d. Astigmatism
133.
A patient wearing contact lens complains of discomfort, decreased lens
wearing time, blurring of vision, conjunctival hyperemia. What might be the
case?
a. Endothelial blebs
b. Peripheral keratitis
c. Infiltration
d. Corneal exhaustion syndrome
134.
What is best suited for curvatural myopia?
a. Spectacles
b. Contact lens
c. Any of them
d. None, only surgery
Pediatric
Optometry and Binocular vision
135.
A patient of 6 cm IPD has 7 prism exophoria at far, 12 prism exophoria
at near at a working distance of 40 cm. What is AC/A ratio?
a. 3.33:1
b. 5:1
c. 8:1
d. 2:1
136.
A patient has out and down sudden deviated eye with ptosis. What might
be the case?
a. IV nerve palsy
b. VI nerve palsy
c. III nerve palsy
d. VII nerve palsy
137.
Double Maddox rod is useful in?
a. Hyperphoria
b. Hypotropia
c. Cyclodeviation
d. Exophoria
138.
Orientation of Bagolini glasses stripes is at?
a. 90 degree and 180 degree
b. 70 degree and 160 degree
c. 45 degree and 135 degree
d. 60 degree and 150 degree
139.
Hess chart gives idea about?
a. State of retinal
correspondence
b. Suppression
c. State of diplopia
d. Ocular deviation
140.
Large separation of image creates?
a. Diplopia
b. Retinal rivalry
c. Confusion
d. Suppression
141.
Active vision therapy is?
a. Pleoptics
b. Occlusion
c. Penalization
d. Pharmacological therapy
142.
A patient has exotropia but fusion. What might be the case?
a. NRC
b. ARC
c. Suppression
d. Microtropia
143.
Vectograph is related to testing of?
a. Diplopia
b. Suppression
c. ARC
d. Microtropia
144.
What happens when an esotropia patient is prescribed in minus lens?
a. Deviation increases
b. Deviation decreases
c. May increase or decrease
depending upon deviation magnitude
d. Remains constant
145.
Pilocarpine is most useful in?
a. Divergent deviation
b. Paralytic deviation
c. Incomitant deviation
d. Restrictive deviation
146.
Forced duction test is used in?
a. Comitant deviation
b. Incomitant deviation
c. Restrictive deviation
d. Paralytic deviation
147.
A patient has 10 prism exophoria at distance and 25 prism exophoria at
near. What might be the case?
a. Convergence excess
b. Convergence insufficiency
c. Divergence excess
d. Divergence insufficiency
148.
Exotropia is 5 prism BI at downgaze and 12 prism BI at upgaze. What is
your diagnosis?
a. A pattern
b. V pattern
c. γ
pattern
d. lambda pattern
149.
Yoke muscle of RSO is?
a. LSR
b. LSO
c. LIO
d. LIR
150.
Pediatric contrast sensitivity is tested by?
a. Feinbloom test
b. Log MAR chart
c. Pelli Robson chart
d. Hiding Heidi
151.
Senile miosis is due to?
a. Dilator atrophy
b. Sphincter atrophy
c. Atrophy of iris vessels
d. Both a & c
Community,
Research and ethics
152.
What is the order of community health diagnosis?
a. Goal, objective, action,
workplan
b. Goal, objective, workplan,
action
c. Action, objective, goal,
workplan
d. Objective, goal, workplan,
action
153.
What should not be done in CHD?
a. Finding out needs
b. Work implementation
c. Ordering
d. Rapport building
154.
By 2021, what was the aimed decrease of prevalence of cataract?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 25%
155.
SHAPU is repeatedly shown in your clinic. Pt. are from the same
community. What would be your 1st step to decrease the patients?
a. Awareness of SHAPU
b. Screening patients of SHAPU
c. Educating about child
blindness
d. Prescribing steroids to
vulnerable groups
156.
What would be the role of public health optometrist?
a. Train other health personnel
b. Relate public health with
eye and work for it
c. Screen eye diseases and
refer to physician
d. Make public health eye
related laws
157.
There are increasing number of NHPC licensed optometrists day by day.
It indicates_?
a. Policy
b. Need to service ratio
c. Service providers
d. Quality of life
158.
Community health diagnosis doesn’t involve?
a. Documentation of data
b. Screening problems
c. Establishing a hospital
d. Giving knowledge to
community
159.
Awareness program is_ intervention?
a. Primordial
b. Primary
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
160.
Prevalence study is?
a. Cohort
b. Cross-sectional
c. Case-control
d. Snowball
161.
Which study establish cause and effect?
a. Cohort
b. Cross-sectional
c. Case-control
d. Snowball
162.
Positive indication of prevalence of cataract is shown by?
a. Rate of cataract surgery
b. Blindness due to cataract
c. Eye care delivery
d. Screening of cataract
163.
A PHC is delivering eye health service. What would you do to implement
your vision if you are appointed in authority level?
a. Observation
b. Survey
c. Documentation
d. Screening
164.
Grading of diabetic retinopathy into mild, moderate and severe is?
a. Ordinal
b. Nominal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
165.
Which of the following test is parametric?
a. Mann Whitney test
b. Kruskal Wallis test
c. T test
d. Rank sum test
166.
If e=+1, then which of the following is true?
a. Prolate ellipse
b. Oblate ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
167.
How can we identify health problem of a community in a most appropriate
way?
a. Rapid appraisal
b. FGD
c. Interview
d. Survey
168.
How can we ascertain the complain of community people with their real
need?
a. Survey
b. Observation
c. Interview
d. FGD
){kind=link}
1 Comments