Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for Masters of Optometry Entrance Examination, Pokhara University

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for Masters of Optometry Entrance Examination, Pokhara University
We have now Master of Optometry course in Nepal under Pokhara University started in 2019, the entrance examination of which is conducted around Sept-Oct (from this year i.e. 2020) by Medical examination Commission in a common entrance examination each year. Here, I have collected the MCQs that appeared in the first entrance examination that took place in Tilganga Institute of Ophthalmology, KTM, and Himalayan Eye Institute, Pokhara on the 3rd of May 2019.

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Rabindra Adhikary, ravinems, optometrist Nepal
Rabindra Adhikary, M. Optom Student at Tilganga Institute of Ophthalmology

         1.      Excimer laser is used in
a)      LASIK
b)      LASEK
c)      PRK
d)     All
        2.      IOL Master uses the principle of
a)      Ultrasound
b)      Coherence Interferometry
c)      Linear Polarization
d)     Fraunhofer Diffraction
         3.      Power of Prism mostly depends upon
a)      Media in which it is kept
b)      Angle
c)      Thickness
d)     All
        4.      The correct one about Stenopic slit is

a)      Used to assess the site for optical PI in corneal opacity
b)      Works on the principle of Prism
c)      The rays of light are limited on the meridian perpendicular to the axis of slit
d)     All
        5.      World Sight Day is celebrated on:
a)      2nd Thursday of October each year
b)      2nd Thursday of October alternate year
c)      2nd Wednesday of October each year
d)     2nd Wednesday of October alternate year
         6 .      Human Crystalline lens develops from
a)      Neuro-ectoderm
b)      Surface ectoderm
c)      Mesenchyme
d)     Mesoderm
       7.      The latest version of disease classification system developed by WHO is
a)      ICD-8
b)      ICD-9
c)      ICD-10
d)     ICD-11
         8.      The longest part of optic nerve is
a)      Intra-ocular
b)      Intra-orbital
c)      Intra-cranial
d)     Intra-canalicular
         9.      Which of the following is true about cortical blindness except
a)      Pupillary Light Reflex is intact
b)      Funduscopy reveals normal finding
c)      VEP can be used as the accurate diagnostic test
d)     Afferent pathway not affected
           10.  Onset of presbyopia depends upon all except
a)      Refractive error
b)      Pupil size
c)      Ciliary tone
d)     AC Depth
           11.  The co-efficient of correlation lies between
a)      0 to 1
b)      -1 to 0
c)      +1 to -1
d)     +0.5 to -0.5
         12.  In axial myopia
a)      Posterior staphyloma is associated
b)       Rays of light focused beyond retina
c)      No risk of progressive retinal degeneration
d)     Yielding of the elastic membrane of the sclera

          13.  ERG b-wave amplitude is reduced in
a)      Oguchi’s Disease
b)      Punctata Albicans
c)      Diabetic
d)     Optic Atrophy
         14.  Gender (male/female) is which entity?
a)      Nominal
b)      Ordinal
c)      Cardinal
d)     Interval
         15.  IOL power is increased if
a)      Corneal curvature increases and axial length is increases
b)      Corneal curvature increases and axial length decreases
c)      Corneal curvature decreases and axial length decreases
d)     Corneal curvature decreases and axial length increases
        16.  Contrast sensitivity peaks at

a)      2 cycles/degree
b)      3 cycles/degree
c)      3.5 cycles/degree
d)     4 cycles/degree
           17.  Which of the following is a parametric test?
a)      Chi-square test
b)      The Kruskal Wallis test
c)      Wilcoxon Signed Rank test
d)     t-test
           18.  Prism produces……………image
a)      Erect
b)      Laterally inverted
c)      Virtual
d)     Shifted towards its base
            19.  The change in stimuli perception from scotopic vision condition to photopic vision condition is best explained by
a)      Purkinje Shift
b)      Photochromatic interval
c)      Visual adaptation
d)     Biphasic threshold
        20.  A case of Retinitis Pigmentosa might be best benefitted by
a)      Field expanding channel lenses
b)      Corning Photochromatic Filters
c)      Telemicroscope
d)     CCTV
        21.  Blue end of visible light causes
a)      Photoophthalmia
b)      Maculopathy
c)      Corneal burns
d)     Xanthelasma
       22.  The prism used in the slit lamp to make the inverted image erect is
a)      Internal doubling prism
b)      Porro Abbe prism
c)      Integrated Fresnel Prism
d)     Reflective polyhedral prism
        23.  Choose the wrong about the range of wavelength
a)      UVC 220-280 nm
b)      UVB 280-315
c)      UVA 315-400 nm
d)     IR A 780-3000 nm
         24.  Public health does not deal with………
a)      Promotive
b)      Rehabilitative
c)      Curative
d)     Preventive
         25.  One is regarded as Basement’s membrane
a)      Bowman’s layer
b)      Stroma
c)      Descement’s membrane
d)     Retinal pigment epithelium
         26.  The contact lens seems loose and rides high while blinking on slit lamp examination. With the diameter constant, altering which of the following parameters do we obtain an optimal fit?
a)      Lens thickness increase
b)      BOZR decrease
c)      Peripheral optic zone decrease
d)     Oxygen permeability increase
         27.  The image formed by reflection of light
a)      Dioptric
b)      Catoptric
c)      Rectilinear
d)     Both b and c
        28.  Of the four Purkinje-Sanson’s  image, which one is inverted?
a)      P1
b)      P2
c)      P3
d)     P4
         29.  In orbital trauma the bone most likely to be damaged is
a)      Lateral Zygomatic
b)      Orbital floor of maxillary
c)      Nasal
d)     Ethmoid
         30.  Diplopia is permitted in
a)      If retinal disparity is not within Panum’s Fusional area
b)      ARC
c)      Eccentric fixation
d)     All
        31.  ……assist a low vision patient
a)      Anomaloscope
b)      Typoscope
c)      Periscope
d)     Orthoscope
          32.  Lea Grating chart is a………acuity
a)      Recognition
b)      Forced Preferential looking
c)      Resolution
d)     OKN
          33.  Full form of RAAB is
                a)      Rapid Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
                b)      Re Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
                c)      Random Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
               d)     Revised Assessment of Avoidable Blindness
        34.  False about Hess Charting
a)      Performed at 135 cm
b)      Red-green goggles are better than red-green glasses
c)      Follows Herring’s and Sherrington’s law
d)     25 test points
          35.  The luminous efficiency of human eye is maximum at
a)      500nm
b)      550 nm
c)      650 nm
d)     700 nm
          36.  One is incorrect about children’s vision test
a)      CSM is recorded for children 1 year or above
b)      Cardiff acuity test consists of vanishing optotypes

c)      At birth a child has 3/60 VA
d)     Teller Acuity is modified form of preferential looking
           37.  Which of the following is not included under occupational care of optometry
a)      Workplace survey
b)      Vision screening
c)      Steps in implementation of program
d)     Epidemiological survey
          38.  Father of Modern optometry is
a)      Theodore Grosvenor
b)      Charles Prentice
c)      Irvin Borish
d)     Gunter K von Noorden
         39.  Spasmus Nutans is not characterized by
a)      Jerky nystagmus
b)      Torticolis
c)      Fades away as child grows
d)     Thiamine and Iron deficiency
          40.  The angle between the line of direction from fovea to the anomalously fixated point in retina is
a)      Objective angle
b)      Subjective angle
c)      Angle of anomaly
d)     Angle kappa
         41.  In JCC, the axis of Jackson cylinder is held ……to the axis of correcting cylinder while refining the cylindrical axis   
a)      45 degree
b)      90 degree
c)      135 degree
d)     Both a & c
       42.  A patient complains that the reading materials appear distorted when looking through a hand magnifier. Which of the following do you think is responsible for this complaint?
a)      The patient maybe holding the reading material farther than the focal length of the magnifying lens
b)      The magnifying lens might be held at an incorrect angle to the reading material
c)      The magnifying lens maybe of poor quality
d)     All
        43.  The new born baby does not have………color perception
a)      Red
b)      Green
c)      Blue
d)     All
       44.  The industrial safety standards advise which materials to be used?
a)      CR-39
b)      Ophthalmic Flint
c)      Polycarbonate
d)     PMMA
         45.  In dendritic keratitis, …………ointment acyclovir is applied
a)      3%, 3 times
b)      5%, 5 times
c)      3%, 5 times
d)     5%, 3 times
       46.  Light
a)      Is a wave
b)      Is an energy
c)      Is a particle
d)     All
       47.  Which of the following property of image is not possible when formed by convex lens?
a)      Real, inverted
b)      Real, upright
c)      Virtual, inverted
d)     Virtual, upright
         48.  Prevalence of cataract in a city is based estimated by…….study
a)      Cohort
b)      Cross-sectional
c)      Longitudinal
d)     Case-control
         49.  For a sportswear, prescription glass should pass
a)      ANSI z87.1
b)      0.25 ounce drop ball test
c)      ASTM F803
d)     All     
          50.  Neutral density filters allow
a)      Long wavelength
b)      Short wavelength
c)      Broad spectrum
d)     Narrow spectrum
         51.  In PDR, there should be
a)      Cotton wool spot
b)      IRMA
c)      Rubeosis
d)     Neovascularization
        52.  In 24-2 program of Humphrey field analyzer, total points tested are
a)      54
b)      72
c)      76
d)     48
       53.  Unit of Dk/t is
a)      Cm2 ml O2/ mmHg
b)      Cm ml O2 / sec. ml mmHg
c)      Cm ml O2 sec / ml mmHg
d)     Cm ml O2 mmHg / sec ml
        54.  Which sampling is appropriate for a homogenous population?
a)      Systematic
b)      Simple random
c)      Purposive
d)     Stratified
       55.  Koeppe’s nodule is found in
a)      Choroid
b)      Ciliary body
c)      Iris
d)     Eyelids
       56.  In OCT the high reflectivity is obtained from……….layer
a)      Outer plexiform
b)      Inner Nuclear
c)      Nerve fiber layer
d)     Internal limiting membrane
        57.  Most common stabilization technique for soft toric
a)      Double truncation with peripheral slab off
b)       Prism ballasting with superior shifting of optical center
c)      Single truncation with dynamic stabilization
d)     Double slab off with periballast
          58.  Which is not an elevation based scanning of cornea?
a)      ORBSCAN
b)      Oculus Pantacam
c)      Oculyzer
d)     Videokeratographer
         59.  An object is placed 45 cm ahead of a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm. Which is correct?
a)      Image distance=11.24, M=4
b)      Image distance=-11.25, M=0.25
c)      Image distance=22.5, M=2
d)     Image distance=-22.5, M=0.5
      60.  Which parameter of light remains constant when a light enters another medium from the first of any?
a)      Wavelength
b)      Velocity
c)      Frequency
d)     Color
         61.  B Scan means
a)      Frequency scan
b)      Brightness scan

c)      Axial scan
d)     Mode scan
        62.  The second most common cause of blindness in the world
a)      Diabetic retinopathy
b)      Glaucoma
c)      Onchocerciasis
d)     Age related macular degenerations
          63.  Most reliable method of Gonioscopy includes…..lens
a)      Koeppe
b)      Barkan
c)      Goldman
d)     4 mirror
         64.  The add required for a 40 year old with working distance <30cm
a)      +0.75 D
b)      +1 D
c)      +1.25 D
d)     +1.5 D
         65.  Contrast sensitivity is fully developed at
a)      3 months
b)      6 months
c)      9 months
d)     12 months
          66.  A patient comes with the splashing of detergent in the eyes. After thorough wash, you see punctuate keratopathy with NO epithelial defect. Which treatment protocol would you like to follow?
a)      Topical antibiotic with analgesia
b)      Topical antibiotic, steroid with analgesia
c)      Topical potassium citrate with analgesia
d)     Topical potassium ascorbate with lubricants 
        67.  Which one does have hereditary correlation
a)      Green color defect
b)      Blue Defect
c)      Red defect
d)     All
          68.  1M letter subtends 5 degree angle at the nodal point of eye when the object of regard is kept at
a)      40 cm
b)      1m
c)      5m
d)     25 cm
          69.  …………is not a low vision aid
a)      Text scanner
b)      Plus plano cylinder
c)      Concave mirror
d)     Channel lenses
          70.  The illuminance of the room while using computer should be
a)      50 lux
b)      100-200 lux
c)      300-500 lux
d)     500-700 lux
           71.  A person wears +4 D spherical spectacles but his glasses are pantoscopically tilted by 10 degrees. Which is false?
a)      The optical center should have been shifted lower by 5 mm
b)      The tilt will develop a plus cylinder whose axis will be at 180 degrees
c)      The effective spherical power will be less than +4 D
d)     None
         72.  The first field defect in POAG
a)      Isolated nasal scotima
b)      Bjerrum’s scotoma
c)      Arcuate Scotoma
d)     Ring Scotoma
          73.  The action of superior oblique is best explained by
a)      Abduction, elevation, extorsion
b)      Adduction, elevation, intorsion
c)      Abduction, depression, intorsion
d)     Abduction, depression, extorsion
           74.  The cycloplegic effect of tropicamide would last
a)      30-45 min
b)      45- 90 min
c)      2-4 hours
d)     6 hours
          75.  Disc edema is observed in all except
a)      Papillitis
b)      CRVO
c)      BRVO
d)     Neovascular Glaucoma
           76.  Metamorphopsia is demonstrated best in……char  of Amsler Grid
a)      Chart 2
b)      Chart 5
c)      Chart 6
d)     Both b and c
           77.  In Amsler chart 1, each square will constitute ……degree of visual field
a)      0.5
b)      1
c)      2
d)     10
         78.  In divergence excess type of exodeviation, one among all is false
a)      High AC/A ratio
b)      Normal near point of convergence
c)      Normal near point of accommodation
d)     Near exo= 25 prism, far exo= 10
         79.  What percentage of cyclepentolate is recommended in the cycleplegic refraction of a young child more than 3 years old?
a)      0.25%
b)      0.5%
c)      1%
d)     2%
          80.  A 53 year old male has been wearing add +1.75Ds. He has no distance error. He complains of slight difficulty reading small prints. What changes would he have to make if he wanted to see clearly with the same diopters?
a)      Use a progressives of same prescription in a hard design
b)      Use the lenses to fit into separate frame so that segment height is slightly elevated
c)      Move the glasses away from the corneal apex thereby increasing the vertex distance
d)     Use the low powered hand magnifier when needed
         81.  The disadvantage of monovision fitting of contact lens in presbyopia instead of bifocal contact lens is
a)      Loss of stereopsis
b)      Dizziness and headache until adaptation
c)      Relative loss of contrast
d)     Reduced field of view
         82.  All are signs of anterior uveitis except
a)      Reduced VA
b)      Miosis
c)      Circum-ciliary injection
d)     Papillae
       83.  The test of Psychophysical test does not include
a)      Visual Acuity
b)      Color Vision
c)      Contrast sensitivity
d)     VEP
      84.  Third Nerve Palsy is best demonstrated by
a)      Ptosis, diplopia and esodeviation
b)      Ptosis, mydriasis and exodeviation
c)      Ptosis, miosis and exodeviation
d)     Diplopia, exodeviation and miosis
         85.  All are used for binocular vision test except
a)      WFD test
b)      Anaglyph
c)      Maddox rod
d)     Duochrome test
          86.  Bilateral superior oblique muscle palsy is elucidated by all except
a)      V pattern
b)      Bielshowsky head tilt test positive
c)      Spontaneous torsional diplopia
d)     Associated history of trauma
         87.  In thyroid ophthalmopathy there is NOT
a)      Proptosis
b)      Ptosis
c)      Thickening of orbital tissues
d)     Restriction in eye movement
        88.  DRS type II is characterized by all except
a)      Marcus jaw winking
b)      Crocodile tears
c)      Retraction of the eyeball as the eye moves inward
d)     Poor abduction, good adduction
         89.  Which color vision is hereditary in nature
a)      Red
b)      Green
c)      Blue
d)     All
      90.  Nepal government signed the global initiative vision 2020 the right to sight in
a)      1998
b)      1999
c)      2000
d)     2001
       91.  Optotypes of ETDRS contrast charts have
a)      Gradual progression of 5/4 ratio
b)      0.1 log unit larger than the ones in the preceding line
c)      Charts can only be used either 2m or 4m
d)     Non-sheriff consistent number of letters
         92.  In GAT, 4D of corneal astigmatism bring about the change in IOP error by
a)      1 mmofHg
b)      2 mm of Hg
c)      3 mm of HG
d)     4 mm of Hg
        93.  World optometry day is observed in
a)      22 March
b)      23 March
c)      24 March
d)     25 March
         94.  Glaucoma has the essential feature of
a)      Raised intra-ocular pressure
b)      Associated family history
c)      Visual field defect
d)     Tunnel vision
         95.  Which of the following telescopes has the largest exit pupil
a)      7x50
b)      8x35
c)      10x20
d)     10x40
        96.  In Bruckner test, the affected eye
a)      shines with dull, red reflex
b)      shines with bright, red reflex
c)      shines with dim, yellow reflex
d)     shines with bright, yellow reflex
         97.  In which condition B Scan is suggested even if the media is clear?
a)      Absolute glaucoma with NPL vision
b)      Retrobulbar neuritis
c)      Retinal detachment
d)     Macular hole
        98.  Piezo-electric crystals are used in
a)      Biometric probe
b)      Pneumatic Tonometer
c)      B scan transducer
d)     Ultrasonic pachymeter
        99.  The removal of ocular structures with the sclera and extraocular muscle remaining in situ is
a)      Enucleation
b)      Exenteration
c)      Evisceration
d)     Orbitotomy
100.    With regard to pin-hole, one is FALSE
a)      The vision through the pinhole is usually worse in patient with macular disease
b)      It may allow presbyopic patients to read comfortably without optical correction
c)      Failure of the vision to improve to 6/6 with pinhole indicates the presence of macular disease
d)     Too small a pinhole can affect vision through interference

 101.    Spot of stationary light fades away due to the retinal bleaching is described by
a)      Broca-Sulzer Effect
b)      Troxler effect
c)      Bruckner Belzowsky effect
d)     None
102.    Saccadic motion to the left involves… agonist
a)      Left medial rectus
b)      Right lateral rectus
c)      Left lateral rectus
d)     Both lateral recti
103.    Age related changes in the eye encompass all except
a)      Syneresis
b)      Dermatochalasis
c)      Xanthelasma
d)     Mesopia at higher level of ambient luminance
104.    The exact anatomic location of intra-ocular lens to be implanted is
a)      Zonular fossa
b)      Capsular bag
c)      Intracapsular bag
d)     Vitreous cavity
105.    The prismatic effect when a +5Ds lens is decentered by 10mm is……prism diopter
a)      50
b)      0.5
c)      5
d)     2
106.    Specular microscopy visualizes mosaic pattern of
a)      Epithelium
b)      Endothelium
c)      Bowman’s layer
d)     Descemet’s membrane

107. The donated cornea is cryopreserved in M-K medium at… Celsius
a)      Less than 0
b)      2-8
c)      10-25
d)     28-37
108.    Hypopyon is the
a)      Blood in the AC
b)      Foreign body in the AC
c)      Pus in the AC
d)     Flares in the AC
109.    In case of Anisometropia,
a)      Of more than 1D in hyperopic patients can usually be controlled through accommodation of the more hypermetropic eye
b)      Is a common cause of amblyopia in patients with uncorrected low myopia
c)      Of recent onset may be caused by development of posterior subcapsular cataract
d)     May result from unilateral central serous retinopathy

110.    Patient with significant peripheral visual field loss may not be relieved from
a)      Prism with base towards the area of visual field loss
b)      Mirror mounted on glasses
c)      Galilean telescope
d)     Concave lens
111.    All are tests of Eikonometry except
a)      Turville Test
b)      Brecher’s Procedure
c)      Horizontal Miles Procedures
d)     Forced duction test

112.    Hiedelberg’s Retinal tomography uses
a)      Lasers
b)      Infrared
c)      Neons
d)     Halogens
113.    A patient has -3..00/-3.00 x 180 spectacle Rx. A trial toric of -3.3/-3.00 x 170 is selected to observe right hand side rotation with respect to the patient by 10 degrees. The final power of the prescriptions, provided all other things are constant, is:
a)      -3.00/-3.00 x 10
b)      -3.00/-2.5 x 10
c)      -3.00/-3.00 x 160
d)     -3.00/-2.5 x 180
114.          The materials used in making prosthetic eye
a)      Plasters of Paris
b)      Hydroxy-appetites
c)      Alginates
d)     Borro-sillicates
115.    A 5ml vial of an ophthalmic drug contains……drops of medicines
a)      50-60
b)      80-90
c)      110-120
d)     140-150
116.       The pH value of human healthy tear is
a)      6.5
b)      6.8
c)      7.1
d)     7.4
117.    Which of the following drug has been recently postulated to be effective for the reversal of crystalline aggregation and cataract formation?
a)      Cholecalciferol
b)      Lanosterol
c)      Inositol
d)     Fludrocortisol
118.  The first antibiotic that was discovered by humankind acted against which of the following bacterial mechanism
a)      Protein Synthesis
b)      DNA Synthesis
c)      Cell wall synthesis
d)     Folic Acid synthesis
119. First order neuron is defined by
a)      Horizontal cells
b)      Retinal Bipolar Cells
c)      Retinal Ganglion Cells
d)     Amacrine cells
120. Pie in the sky defect in the visual field is seen when a lesion affects
a)      Medullary optic lamina of optic radiation
b)      Visuopsychic peristriate area 18
c)      Mayer's Loop
d)     Dorsolateral aspect of optic tract

121. A man has central corneal thickness of 542 μm in the right eye with IOP 22 mmHg. Keeping all other parameters constant, what would be the predicted IOP if his right eye would have measured 522 μm in pachymetry?
a)      20 mmHg

b)      21 mmHg
c)      23mmHg
d)     24 mmHg
122. The geometrical shape of a normative adult cornea can best be described as
a)      Prolate Ellipsoid
b)      Oblate Ellipsoid
c)      Prolate Spheroid
d)     Oblate Spheroid

123. Due to an acquired retinal disease a person's visual condition was so worse that he is diagnosed to fall under low vision criteria. He undergoes a sequential psychological process in the order as:
a)      Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
b)      Denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance
c)      Denial, bargaining, anger, acceptance, finding meaning
d)     Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

124. Which are the FOUR original guiding principles for optometry profession stated by Beauchamp and Childress ?
a)      Beneficence, justice, respect of autonomy, non-maleficience
b)      Beneficence, justice, respect of autonomy, confidentiality
c)      Beneficence, justice, non-maleficience, collegiality
d)     Beneficience, justice, respect of autonomy, protecting the vulnerable

125. A monochromatic light comes from a source kept at 50 cm from a convex lens of 10 diopters. The approximate optical path distance between object and image if this phenomenon occurs in air:
a) 40 cm
b) 60 cm
c)80 cm
d) 100 cm

126. The critical cut-off value of corneal thickness to determine whether to go for a refractive LASIK surgery is
a) 470
b) 500
c) 530
d) 550

127. Of all below, one falls under low order aberrations
a) Spherical aberration
b) Secondary astigmatism
c) Coma
d) Prismatic effect

128. The correctional mechanism against the lag of target to position on fovea is called
a) Vestibular reflex
b) Version
c) Saccade
d) Pursuit

129. All of the following represent a form of adaptation to neurogenic palsy of extra-ocular muscles. Odd one out:
a) Amblyopia
b) Supression
c) Torticollis
d) Abnormal Retinal Correspondence

130. Which of the following is not responsible for reduced corneal sensation?
a) Neurotrophic keratitis
b) Fungal corneal ulcer
c) Penetrating Keratoplasty
d) Hansen's Disease

131. Mechanical obstruction in ocular motility cannot be diagnosed by
a) forced duction test
b) hess charting
c) force generation test
d) positional tonometry

132. Bacteria that cannot break into the intact cornea
a) Corneybacteerium diptheriae
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Streptococcus hemolyticus
d)Nesseria mengitidis

133. The classical triad of Horner's syndrome is
a) Mydriasis, ptosis and anhidrosis
b) Miosis, proptosis and anhidrosis
c) Miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis
d) Anisocorea, proptosis and anhidrosis
134. Mettendorf's dots are found in
a) iris
b) lens
c) lens capsule
d) vitreous

135. The viewing of anterior chamber structures is possible if the rays of light coming from the angle strikes the line normal to cornea at
a) 420
b) 460
c) 500
d) 540

136. Which one of the following would you prioritize as ocular emergency?
a) Corneal Abrasion
b) Hyphema
c) Macular Edema
d) orbital cellulitis

137. Cotton wool spots as seen in diabetic retinopathy lies in which layer of retina?
a) Internal Limiting Membrane
b) Nerve fiber layer
c) Outer Plexiform Layer
d) Pigment Epithelial layer

138. The clinical presentation of BRVO is most often seen in ……..retina
a) Infero-nasal
b) Infero-temporal
c) supero-nasal
d) supero-temporal

139. Dilation of pupil while going in the dark demonstrate the integrity of
a) Afferent Pathway
b)Efferent Pathway
c) Sympathetic Pathway
d) Parasympathetic Pathway

140. One is false about Ishihara Pseudo-isochromatic plates
a) It consists of 4 types of diagnostic plates: vanishing, transformation, hidden-digit, and qualitatively diagnostic.
b) The only systematic difference between the figure and background dots is in color: the figure is composed of dots of one or more colors, and the background is composed of dots of different color or colors.
c) The failure to read even the diagnostic plate is a sign of non-physiologic visual loss
d) Minimum distance BCVA required in order for the reliable results is 6/18

141. In a before-and-after study design, the effect that brings about the error in outcome variable when the measurement time after the treatment is significantly delayed is
a) Regression effect
b) Hawthorne effect
c) Maturation effect
d) Reactive effect

142. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting protein synthesis of micro-organism?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Chloramphenicol
d) Ayclovir
143. Odd one out about an ideal artificial tear substitute
a) should lower the surface tension of the tear film, Ref. index close to 1.37
b) should be preservative-free if intended for use by patients who require frequent instillation
c) pH does not account much as long as it is isotonic at 300 m Osm/L
d) should aid in the formation of a hydrophilic layer that is compatible with adsorbed mucin and enhance tear volume

144. One with the lowest index of refraction is
a) Ophthalmic Flint
b) Ophthalmic Crown
c) Polycarbonate
d) Columbia Resin

145. A +3.50 Ds hypermetrope has a near point that is 50cm from her cornea when she is not wearing her spectacles. With her spectacles (vertex distance 15mm) on, how far from her cornea is her near point now located?

a) Infinity
b) 67.7 cm
c) 33.3 cm
d) None
146. What is the spectacle magnification of a spectacle lens of back vertex power -5.00Ds refractive index 1.523 and center thickness 4.0mm) made with a front surface power if +5.00Ds and placed 13 mm from the cornea?
a) 0.95
b) 0.07
c) 2.35
d) 1.03

147. One is false about the normal distribution curve
a) standard normal variate implies how many standard deviation away is the given point from the mean
b) mean, median and mode all lie on a single plane which divides the curve into mirror halves
c) Within one standard deviation interval, there is 68.26% of sample population
d) The maximum probability of a sample being selected on a random picking is at three standard deviation away from mean

148. one is not a RGP complication
a) Residual refractive error
b) Dimple veiling
c) Lens flexure
d) Ptosis

149. Principle of wavefront aberration finds the clinical utility in all but
a) refractive and cataract surgeries
b) understanding to minimize coma and secondary astigmatism
c) correcting the piston
d) designing wavefront-guided progressive lenses to counter high order aberrations
150. which method of lamellar corneal transplant is most common in Nepal?
a)  SALK

1 d
2 b
3 b
4 d
5 a
6 b
7 d
8 b
9 c
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 a
15 c
16 d
17  d
18 a
19 b
20 b
21 b
22 b
23 d
24 c
25 a
26 b
27 b
28 d
29 b
30 a
31 b
32 c
33 a
34 a
35 b
36 a
37 d
38 c
39 d
40 a
41 d
42 d
43 d
44 c
45 c
46 d
47 c
48 b
49 d
50 c
51 d
52 a
53 b
54 b
55 c
56 c
57 b
58 d
59 b
60 c
61 b
62 c
63 d
64 c
65 c
66 a
67 d
68 b
69 b
70 c
71 d
72 a
73 c
74 d
75 d
76 d
77 b
78 d
79 c
80 c
81 b
82 d
83 d
83 d
85 d
86 b
87 b
88 d
89 d
90 b
91 c
92 a
93 b
94 c
95 a
96 a
97 c
98 c
99 c
100 c
101 b
102 c
103 c
104 b
105 c
106 b
107 b
108 c
109 b
110 c
111 d
112 a
113 d
114 c
115 b
116 d
117 b
119 b
120 c
121 b
122 a
123 d
124 a
125 c
126 a
127 d
128 c
129 c
130 b
131 b
132 c
133 c
134 c
135 a
136 d
137 b
138 d
139 c
140 d
141 c
142 b
1143 c
144 d
145 d
146 a
147 d
148 a
149 c
150 b

Bonus questions:
1. The keratometry reading of a myopic eye of 5 Diopters is 43 Diopters and 41 Diopters horizontally and vertically respectively. What is the expected average k-reading after refractive surgery in general?
a) 38
b) 40
c) 41
d) 45

Ans: 38D
(Hint: Predicted avg k = avg pre-op k - 80% of Ref error)
Mind that if it is hyperopia of 5D, predicted avg k = 47D, because Post-op k = avg pre-op k + 100% of Ref Error)

2. The typical irregular against-the-rule astigmatism in which the topographic steepening nasally and temporally connects inferiorly is seen in
a) Keratoconus
b) Post-pk
c) PMD
d) Keratoglobus

Ans: Pellucid Marginal Degeneration (PMD), the topographic impression is also called kissing pigeon appearance, as it resembles the beaks of pigeon joined at the center.

Other Useful Links:

Master of Optometry: Entrance Examination Syllabus

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